QUESTION 1
Which statement is true regarding renditions?
A. A document may have more than one rendition with the same file format.
B. Renditions may only be added by Documentum Transformation Services (DTS).
C. Different renditions of the same document’s content can have different ACLs applied to them.
D. Different renditions of the same document’s content can appear in different folders in the repository.
Answer: A
QUESTION 1
What is the significance of classifying applications for data availability requirements?
A. Identify an application’s non-functional requirements
B. Identify an application’s functional requirements
C. Determine application mapping with critical components
D. Determine business continuity priorities
Answer: D
QUESTION 1
You are planning to deploy a virtualized application in a high-availability configuration with automated VM restart on a hypervisor cluster. Your sizing estimates show that peak workload conditions will saturate the processing power of four hypervisor servers.
To meet the SLA, N+2 redundancy is required on the hypervisor servers, with server utilization not to exceed 80% under any conditions.
What is the minimum number of nodes that you should configure in the hypervisor cluster?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: C
QUESTION 1
Which element of a Time-State model represents an IT service failure?
A. Engineering time
B. Scheduled downtime
C. Standby time
D. Unscheduled downtime
Answer: C
QUESTION 1
An organization purchased a NAS storage infrastructure to service all its applications for three years. Various cost components for this deployment are as follows:
• Initial cost includes the purchase cost of $2,000 and an installation charge of $400.
• Organization needs to pay $200 per year for maintenance and $100 per year as license fees.
• From Year 2, the organization must pay $1,000 per year for OS upgrades.
At the end of the three years, the organization needs to pay a recycling fee of $50 to dispose of the NAS device that will no longer be needed. What is the total cost of ownership (TCO) each year to implement this technology infrastructure?
A. $1,783
B. $2,675
C. $3,566
D. $5,350
Answer: A
QUESTION 1
If your intention is to show trends over time, which chart type is the most appropriate way to depict the data?
A. Line chart
B. Bar chart
C. Stacked bar chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You are analyzing a time series and want to determine its stationarity. You also want to determine the order of autoregressive models.
How are the autocorrelation functions used?
A. ACF as an indication of stationarity,and PACF for the correlation between Xt and Xt-k not explained
by their mutual correlation with X1 through Xk-1.
B. PACF as an indication of stationarity,and ACF for the correlation between Xt and Xt-k not explained
by their mutual correlation with X1 through Xk-1.
C. ACF as an indication of stationarity,and PACF to determine the correlation of X1 through Xk-1.
D. PACF as an indication of stationarity,and ACF to determine the correlation of X1 through Xk-1.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which word or phrase completes the statement? A spreadsheet is to a data island as a centralized database for reporting is to a ________?
A. Data Warehouse
B. Data Repository
C. Analytic Sandbox
D. Data Mart
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What is one modeling or descriptive statistical function in MADlib that is typically not provided in a standard relational database?
A. Linear regression
B. Expected value
C. Variance
D. Quantiles
Answer: A
QUESTION 5
In which phase of the data analytics lifecycle do Data Scientists spend the most time in a project?
A. Discovery
B. Data Preparation
C. Model Building
D. Communicate Results
Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You are testing two new weight-gain formulas for puppies. The test gives the results:
Control group: 1% weight gain
Formula A. 3% weight gain
Formula B. 4% weight gain
A one-way ANOVA returns a p-value = 0.027
What can you conclude?
A. Either Formula A or Formula B is effective at promoting weight gain.
B. Formula B is more effective at promoting weight gain than Formula A.
C. Formula A and Formula B are both effective at promoting weight gain.
D. Formula A and Formula B are about equally effective at promoting weight gain.
Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Data visualization is used in the final presentation of an analytics project. For what else is this technique commonly used?
A. Data exploration
B. Descriptive statistics
C. ETLT
D. Model selection
Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which functionality do regular expressions provide?
A. text pattern matching
B. underflow prevention
C. increased numerical precision
D. decreased processing complexity
Answer: A
QUESTION 9
When creating a project sponsor presentation, what is the main objective?
A. Show that you met the project goals
B. Show how you met the project goals
C. Show how well the model will meet the SLA (service level agreement)
D. Clearly describe the methods and techniques used
Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which word or phrase completes the statement? Business Intelligence is to monitoring trends as Data Science is to ________ trends.
A. Predicting
B. Discarding
C. Driving
D. Optimizing
Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Consider a scale that has five (5) values that range from “not important” to “very important”. Which data classification best describes this data?
A. Ordinal
B. Nominal
C. Real
D. Ratio
Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which key role for a successful analytic project can provide business domain expertise with a deep understanding of the data and key performance indicators?
A. Business Intelligence Analyst
B. Project Manager
C. Project Sponsor
D. Business User
Answer: A
QUESTION 13
You have used k-means clustering to classify behavior of 100, 000 customers for a retail store. You decide to use household income, age, gender and yearly purchase amount as measures. You have chosen to use 8 clusters and notice that 2 clusters only have 3 customers assigned. What should you do?
A. Decrease the number of clusters
B. Increase the number of clusters
C. Decrease the number of measures used
D. Identify additional measures to add to the analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION 14
What does R code nv <- v[v < 1000] do?
A. Selects the values in vector v that are less than 1000 and assigns them to the vector nv
B. Sets nv to TRUE or FALSE depending on whether all elements of vector v are less than 1000
C. Removes elements of vector v less than 1000 and assigns the elements >= 1000 to nv
D. Selects values of vector v less than 1000,modifies v,and makes a copy to nv
Answer: A
QUESTION 15
For which class of problem is MapReduce most suitable?
A. Embarrassingly parallel
B. Minimal result data
C. Simple marginalization tasks
D. Non-overlapping queries
Answer: A
QUESTION 16
In data visualization, which type of chart is recommended to represent frequency data?
A. Line chart
B. Histogram
C. Q-Q chart
D. Scatterplot
Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which activity might be performed in the Operationalize phase of the Data Analytics Lifecycle?
A. Run a pilot
B. Try different analytical techniques
C. Try different variables
D. Transform existing variables
Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A
QUESTION 1
Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
Answer: B
QUESTION 1
What is a characteristic feature of My Documentum for Desktop?
A. Integration with Windows File System Explorer
B. Recycle bin
C. A Documentum menu bar item
D. A customization of Webtop
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which Webtop feature enables quick access to favorite documents from the browser tree menu?
A. Properties dialog
B. Favorites
C. Subscription
D. Notification
Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What happens to a Microsoft Word document when a user imports it into the repository?
A. A copy of the document is made and imported into the repository file store.
B. Nothing. Documentum only stores metadata along with a pointer to the document in the file system.
C. A copy of the document is made and imported along with metadata into the repository.
D. The original document is moved from the file system and imported into the repository file store.
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
In a Documentum environment, how is it apparent to a user that Microsoft Office integrations are enabled on their machine?
A. The user is restricted to using only Microsoft Office formats when creating new documents.
B. A Microsoft logo appears in the upper-right corner of the Webtop home page.
C. A Documentum menu option displays when the user opens Microsoft Word.
D. A Microsoft Office menu option displays when the user logs in to Webtop.
Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A Webtop user checks out a Microsoft Word document from the repository and edits it.
How will the user be prompted upon checkin of the edited document?
A. Checkin as the same, next minor, or next major version.
B. Checkin as the same version
C. Checkin as either the next major or minor version
D. Rename the new version
Answer: A
QUESTION 6
When a document object is checked in as the same version, which statement is true?
A. All renditions are orphaned from all versions.
B. All renditions are orphaned from the current version.
C. No renditions are orphaned from the current version.
D. All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of same version checkin.
Answer: B
QUESTION 7
If a user has completed the checkout operation on a document object, which statement is true?
A. Only this user or a superuser can cancel the checkout operation.
B. Only this user can cancel the checkout operation.
C. Only this user or a superuser cancheckin the document object.
D. Only the superuser can cancel the checkout operation.
Answer: A
QUESTION 8
When a document with renditions is versioned, which statement is true?
A. New renditions must be generated automatically.
B. All renditions from previous version are carried over by default.
C. All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of new version checkin.
D. All renditions are orphaned from all versions.
Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which statement is true for checking in multiple document objects to a repository?
A. The client application determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
B. The Content Server determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
C. The data dictionary can be configured to allow more than one document object with the same name in the same folder.
D. The Content Server architecture does not allow document objects with the same name in the same folder.
Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which statement is true for a user who has Browse and Extended Delete and does not belong to any roles listed on the permission set?
A. The user can view the document object’s content and delete the document object.
B. The user can move or delete the document object but is unable to view the properties.
C. The user can move or delete the document object and view its content.
D. The user can view the properties but is unable to view the document object’s content.
Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which statement is true regarding versioning when a user edits version 1.1 of a document object, which is an older version than what is currently available?
A. A new version of the document object is created, and “1.0” is appended to the edited version.
B. A new version of the document object is created, and “2.0” is appended to the edited version.
C. The document object is saved as version 1.1.
D. The document object is saved as version 2.0.
Answer: A
QUESTION 12
A client application applies the “In Review” version label to a document object.
What is the expected behavior the next time a user performs a checkin on that document?
A. The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document and the previous version.
B. The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document and is removed from the previous version.
C. The “In Review” version label cannot be applied to the new version of the document and remains with the previous version.
D. The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document, while the previous version with the same label will be deleted by the Content Server.
Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A user has Edit (Write) permission on a document object that is contained in FolderA. The same user has Edit (Write) permission on FolderA and FolderB.
The user wants to move the document object from FolderA to FolderB.
Which statement is true?
A. The user can move the document from FolderA to FolderB without acquiring additional permissions.
B. The user must also have Delete permission on the document object and FolderA to move the document.
C. The user must have Delete permission on the document object and both folders to move the document.
D. The user must have Delete permission on both folders to move the document.
Answer: A
QUESTION 14
When renditions are managed along with the document object’s primary rendition, which statement is true?
A. Renditions can be of any format but multiple renditions with the same format cannot exist.
B. Renditions can be of any format but multiple renditions with the same format cannot exist within the same version.
C. Renditions can be of any format.
D. Renditions can be of any format that is not the same format as the primary rendition.
Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which statement is true about the ability to drag and drop objects from within Webtop to the user’s local desktop?
A. The feature works when multiple files are selected.
B. The feature works only when the browser’s security level is set to Medium.
C. The feature is enabled for all users by default.
D. The feature is only available through the clipboard.
Answer: A
QUESTION 16
What can be subscribed to in the repository?
A. A permission set
B. An object type
C. A group
D. A folder
Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Where in Webtop can the default application for viewing objects be set?
A. Preferences
B. Tools menu
C. Properties
D. Advanced Search
Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
Which tool helps to create Cloud services?
A. Service planning tool
B. Service creation tool
C. Service management tool
D. Service monitoring tool
Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which technique enables making physical resources appear as logical resources?
A. Virtualization
B. Utility computing
C. Self provisioning
D. Grid computing
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which is an essential characteristic of the Cloud?
A. Resource planning
B. Resource utilization
C. Resource pooling
D. Resource reservation
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which is a key step in building a Cloud Infrastructure?
A. Automate resource classification
B. Automate service provisioning
C. Centralize services and resources
D. Customize services and resources
Answer: B
QUESTION 5
What is the benefit of a RAID?
A. Improves storage systems performance
B. Prevents disk failure in a RAID Set
C. Ensures data integrity in a RAID set
D. Simplifies distribution of parity across mirrored disks
Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about FC SAN?
A. Enables object level access to data
B. Supports a maximum of 256 nodes
C. Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS
D. Has limited ability to share resources
Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support new business initiatives dynamically?
A. Capacity
B. Manageability
C. Availability
D. Flexibility
Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and availability of a RAID set?
A. Number of drives in a RAID set and the capacity of each drive
B. Number of RAID controllers and type of RAID implementation
C. Number of drives is a RAID set and type of RAID implementation
D. Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level
Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data center?
A. Security
B. Flexibility
C. Scalability
D. Availability
Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What is stored in a virtual machine log file?
A. Virtual machine BIOS information
B. Information of virtual machine’s activities
C. Information of virtual machine’s configuration
D. Virtal machine’s RAM contents
Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which parameter determines the maximum amount of resource that a virtual machine can consume?
A. Limit
B. Share
C. Priority
D. Reservation
Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which technology enables a physical CPU to appear as two or more logical CPUs?
A. Ballooning
B. Multi-core
C. Hyper-threading
D. Load balancing
Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which Virtual Machine File System feature ensures that a virtual machine is not powered on by multiple compute systems at the same time?
A. On-power lock
B. On-compute lock
C. On-disk lock
D. On-VM lock
Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which is the primary function of hypervisor
A. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine
B. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine
C. Allows authorization to virtual machine resources to users
D. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a physical machine
Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the host when it has not been accessed for a while?
A. LRU
B. HWM
C. LWM
D. MRU
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What does the area ID of the FC address identify?
A. Group of ports within a switch
B. An individual port within a fabric
C. Location of the name server within the fabric
D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?
A. Source devices must be healthy
B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices
C. Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices
D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet communications?
A. Converged network adapter
B. TCP Offload Engine NIC
C. FCIP bridging adapter
D. iSCSI host bus adapter
Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing?
A. Defining cloud service attributes
B. Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers
C. Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer
D. Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services
Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?
A. RecoverPoint
B. NetWorker
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?
A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume
B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration
C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine
D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address
Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?
A. IQN
B. EUI
C. WWNN
D. WWPN
Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved as it was received?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Security
D. Performance
Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?
A. Area on which the read/write head rests
B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data
C. Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters
D. Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk
Answer: A
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