2014 Latest EXIN EX0-117 Exam Demo Free Download!

Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?
1. Details of failed changes
2. Updates to the change schedule
3. Reviews of completed changes

A.    All of the above
B.    1 and 2only
C.    2 and 3 only
D.    1 and 3 only

Answer: A

Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Core
2. Enabling
3. Special

A.    1 and 3only
B.    All of the above
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 3 only

Answer: C

What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed function when required?

A.    Serviceability
B.    Availability
C.    Capacity
D.    Continuity

Answer: B

Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident?
1. Incident model
2. Known error record

A.    1 only
B.    2only
C.    Both of the above
D.    Neither of the above

Answer: C

Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?
1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication

A.    1 only
B.    2 and 3 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: D

Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?

A.    CSI register
B.    Known error database
C.    Capacity management information system
D.    Configuration management database

Answer: A

Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes

A.    All of the above
B.    1, 2 and 3 only
C.    2 and 4 only
D.    3 and 4 only

Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

A.    Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results
B.    Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
C.    Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
D.    Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

Answer: D

Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

A.    Do
B.    Perform
C.    Implement
D.    Measure

Answer: A

What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service improvement (CSI)?

A.    Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), quality
B.    Strategic, tactical and operational
C.    Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activities
D.    Technology, process and service

Answer: D

Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1. Customers
2. Users
3. Suppliers

A.    All of the above
B.    1 and 3 only
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 3 only

Answer: A

From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?

A.    User
B.    Customer
C.    Supplier
D.    Administrator

Answer: B

Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?

A.    Request fulfilment
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Service desk
D.    IT finance

Answer: A

Which of the following is the best definition of service management?

A.    The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needs
B.    A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
C.    A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
D.    An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers

Answer: B

Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

A.    Knowledge
B.    Information
C.    Wisdom
D.    Data

Answer: C

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Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an Incident?
1. Incident Model
2. Known Error Record

A.    1 only
B.    2 only
C.    Both of the above
D.    Neither of the above

Answer: C

Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?
1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert

A.    1 only
B.    2 only
C.    Both of the above
D.    Neither of the above

Answer: C

Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    All of the above
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 4 only

Answer: A

Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms

A.    None of the above
B.    Both of the above
C.    1 only
D.    2 only

Answer: B

Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

A.    Change Management
B.    Service Transition
C.    Service Strategy
D.    Service Design

Answer: D

Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?

A.    Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B.    Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
C.    Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio
D.    Development, negotiation and agreement of Operational Level Agreements (OLAs)

Answer: B

Which of the following activities are carried out in the “Where do we want to be?” step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model?

A.    Implementing service and process improvements
B.    Reviewing measurable improvements
C.    Creating a baseline
D.    Defining measurable targets

Answer: D

Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement(SLA)?

A.    The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
B.    The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
C.    An SLA that covers all customers for all services
D.    An SLA for a service with no customers

Answer: A

Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?

A.    Capacity Management
B.    Governance
C.    Service Design
D.    Service Level Management

Answer: B

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An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment. Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)

A.    They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B.    They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C.    They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA).
D.    They can be manually generated by the administrator.

Answer: CD
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver. It is a guarantee that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity, performance, availability, redundancy, and so on.
If a storage system uses Storage APIs ?Storage Awareness, it informs vCenter Server that it can guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as a storage capability. vCenter Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage capabilities in the Manage Storage Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are system-defined. vCenter Server assigns the system-defined storage capability to each datastore that you create from that storage system.
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents. You can create user-defined storage capabilities and associate them with datastores. You should associate the same user-defined capability with datastores that guarantee the same level of storage capabilities. You can associate a user-defined capability with a datastore that already has a system- defined capability. A datastore can have only one system-defined and only one user-defined capability at a time.

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A user has a perimeter firewall and up-to-date antivirus software. The user is asking what else they can do to improve their security. Which of the following will have the MOST impact on network security? (Select TWO).

A.    Install additional antivirus software
B.    Disable screen savers
C.    Conduct a daily security audit
D.    Assign security rights based on job roles
E.    Use strong passwords

Answer: DE
To improve security, assign security rights based on job roles. You need to give least amount of privilege to users so that they can do their jobs without having access to resources that have nothing to do with their job roles.

Drag and Drop Questions

A technician is trying to prevent a local application from reaching the web due to security concerns. Which of the following solutions could BEST prevent the application from reaching the web? (Select TWO).

A.    Configure the workstation for a static IP
B.    Disable all wireless network connections
C.    Remove shortcuts to the application
D.    Block the application in Windows Firewall
E.    Change network location to Work
F.    Reroute the web address in HOSTS file

Answer: DF
Use Windows firewall to restrict an application from reaching the web. Alternatively you can also reroute the web address in the HOST file.

A user has downloaded and installed a browser add-on that causes the browser to hang. The PC has very slow system response when rebooted. Which of the following should a technician do to troubleshoot this problem?

A.    Run System Restore, update antivirus program, and run an antivirus scan.
B.    Remove all Internet temporary files, run an antivirus scan, and reboot using Last Known Good Configuration.
C.    Remove all temporary files, turn off System Restore, update and run an antivirus scan.
D.    Run an antivirus scan, Run Disk Cleanup, and reboot into Safe Mode.

Answer: C
This might be the sign of a virus infecting the system. First, remove all temporary Internet files on your computer. Viruses are downloaded through software or a webpage. And normally it resides in Temporary Internet Files folder. Now turn off system restore because you don’t want to load a previous state on the computer with the virus still lingering the digital wild. Run an antivirus program to clean infected files.

– Email address [email protected] com
– Password [email protected]
– Pop techies com Port 110 Security. None
– IMAP techies com Port 993 Security SSL
– smtp.techies.com Port 465 Security: TLS
– Company SSID Techies
– Security WPA2
– Passphrase [email protected]
– SSID is not broadcasted
Instructions: You are not authorized to use the Company’s WLAN The outgoing server does not require login credentials When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.
Answer: See Answer from Full Version
Which of the following steps would allow display output from a laptop to an external display? (Select TWO).

A.    Press the appropriate Function Key combination
B.    A second video card in the Express card slot
C.    Disconnect the integrated display
D.    Enabling second monitor in the Windows Display Settings
E.    Loading external monitor drivers on the laptop

Answer: AD
First enable second monitor in Windows Display settings. After that press the function key along with the assigned key to display the output on an external monitor.

When setting up a new wireless router, which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST in order to secure the network? (Select TWO).

A.    Disable unused ports
B.    Change the SSID
C.    Position the antennas to prevent outside access
D.    Enable MAC filtering
E.    Change the default user name

Answer: BE
The basic tasks to secure a network is to change SSID and the default user name. This is the basic security a user can employ to secure the network immediately.

For which of the following instances is System Restore MOST likely to be used?

A.    Deleting temporary files that are not needed.
B.    Replacing a failed hard drive with a new drive.
C.    Placing the system configuration into a prior state.
D.    Downgrading an operating system to another version.

Answer: C

Administrative share names are MOST commonly designated by which of the following symbols?

A.    !
B.    $
C.    :
D.    *

Answer: B

After loading a new operating system, which of the following accounts is MOST often changed for security purposes?

A.    Standard User
B.    Power User
C.    Guest
D.    System

Answer: C

Virtual machines help users developing cloud applications in which of the following ways?

A.    Provides an environment where the host cannot be connected to the network.
B.    Provides a platform where operating system requirements are lessened.
C.    Provides a safe, secure environment in which to test patches or application updates.
D.    Provides an environment that is never accessible from the Internet.

Answer: C

Which of the following installation types uses an answer file as part of the installation process?

A.    Unattended installation
B.    Clean installation
C.    Virtual desktop image deployment
D.    Remote network installation

Answer: A

An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?

A.    Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B.    Change the default username and password
C.    Enable the wireless AP’s MAC filtering
D.    Enable the wireless AP’s WPA2 security

Answer: B

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Small form factor PCs that utilize full-height PCI and PCI-Express cards need which of the following supplementary items to allow for proper installation?

A.    FireWire cards
B.    Riser cards
C.    Storage cards
D.    Network cards

Answer: B

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2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-007 Exam Demo Free Download!

Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:
Which three statements insert a row into the table? (Choose three.)

A.    INSERT INTO employees
VALUES ( NULL, ‘John’, ‘Smith’);
B.    INSERT INTO employees( first_name, last_name)
VALUES( ‘John’, ‘Smith’);
C.    INSERT INTO employees
VALUES ( ‘1000’, ‘John’, NULL);
D.    INSERT INTO employees (first_name, last_name, employee_id) VALUES ( 1000, ‘John’, ‘Smith’);
E.    INSERT INTO employees (employee_id)
VALUES (1000);
F.    INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, first_name, last_name) VALUES ( 1000, ‘John’, ‘ ‘);

Answer: CEF

Evaluate the SQL statement:
SELECT ROUND(45.953, -1), TRUNC(45.936, 2)
FROM dual;
Which values are displayed?

A.    46 and 45
B.    46 and 45.93
C.    50 and 45.93
D.    50 and 45.9
E.    45 and 45.93
F.    45.95 and 45.93

Answer: C

Which are DML statements? (Choose all that apply.)

F.    DROP…

Answer: BCD
Evaluate the set of SQL statements:
(deptno NUMBER(2),
dname VARCHAR2(14),
loc VARCHAR2(13));
What is true about the set?

A.    The DESCRIBE DEPT statement displays the structure of the DEPT table.
B.    The ROLLBACK statement frees the storage space occupied by the DEPT table.
C.    The DESCRIBE DEPT statement returns an error ORA-04043: object DEPT does not exist.
D.    The DESCRIBE DEPT statement displays the structure of the DEPT table only if there is a COMMIT statement introduced before the ROLLBACK statement.

Answer: A

Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT ename, sal, 12*sal+100
FROM emp;
The SAL column stores the monthly salary of the employee.
Which change must be made to the above syntax to calculate the annual compensation as “monthly salary plus a monthly bonus of $100, multiplied by 12”?

A.    No change is required to achieve the desired results.
B.    SELECT ename, sal, 12*(sal+100)
FROM emp;
C.    SELECT ename, sal, (12*sal)+100
FROM emp;
D.    SELECT ename, sal+100,*12
FROM emp;

Answer: B

Examine the SQL statement that creates ORDERS table:
CHECK (status IN (‘CREDIT’, ‘CASH’)),
PRIMARY KEY (order_id, order_date));
For which columns would an index be automatically created when you execute the above SQL statement? (Choose two.)

A.    SER_NO
F.    composite index on ORDER_ID and ORDER_DATE

Answer: AF

Examine the structure of the EMP_DEPT_VU view:
Column Name Type Remarks
JOB_ID VARCHAR2(20) From the EMPLOYEES table
Which SQL statement produces an error?

A.    SELECT *
FROM emp_dept_vu;
B.    SELECT department_id, SUM(salary)
FROM emp_dept_vu
GROUP BY department_id;
C.    SELECT department_id, job_id, AVG(salary)
FROM emp_dept_vu
GROUP BY department_id, job_id;
D.    SELECT job_id, SUM(salary)
FROM emp_dept_vu
WHERE department_id IN (10,20)
GROUP BY job_id
HAVING SUM(salary) > 20000;
E.    None of the statements produce an error; all are valid.

Answer: E

Evaluate this SQL statement:
In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?
A.    selection, projection, join
B.    difference, projection, join
C.    selection, intersection, join
D.    intersection, projection, join
E.    difference, projection, product

Answer: A

Click the Exhibit button and examine the data from the EMP table. The COMMISSION column shows the monthly commission earned by the employee. Which three tasks would require subqueries or joins in order to be performed in a single step? (Choose three.)

A.    deleting the records of employees who do not earn commission
B.    increasing the commission of employee 3 by the average commission earned in department 20
C.    finding the number of employees who do NOT earn commission and are working for department 20
D.    inserting into the table a new employee 10 who works for department 20 and earns a commission that is equal to the commission earned by employee 3
E.    creating a table called COMMISSION that has the same structure and data as the columns EMP_ID and COMMISSION of the EMP table
F.    decreasing the commission by 150 for the employees who are working in department 30 and earning a commission of more than 800

Answer: BDE

You need to modify the STUDENTS table to add a primary key on the STUDENT_ID column. The table is currently empty. Which statement accomplishes this task?

A.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD PRIMARY KEY student_id;
B.    ALTER TABLE students
C.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD CONSTRAINT stud_id_pk PRIMARY KEY student_id;
D.    ALTER TABLE students
ADD CONSTRAINT stud_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (student_id); E.ALTER TABLE students
MODIFY CONSTRAINT stud_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (student_id);

Answer: D
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An administrator is deploying vSphere 5.5. The administrator creates a vSphere Distributed
Switch, then uses Auto Deploy to deploy several ESXi hosts. After the hosts are deployed, the administrator notices that LACP packets are not being sent between them.
Which condition would cause this issue to occur?

A.    The LACP support settings do not exist in the Host Profile.
B.    The LACP installation bundle is not included in the Image Profile.
C.    The LACP setting is not enabled on vCenter Server.
D.    LACP has not been configured on the Auto Deploy server.

Answer: A

An administrator has configured a vSphere 5.5 test environment to evaluate the Virtual SAN feature using Automatic Mode Disk Groups. The administrator needs to disable the Virtual SAN cluster while preserving the virtual machines running on that cluster.
The administrator has already installed a vSphere 5.5 Client on a Windows 7 desktop and also has access to the vSphere 5.5 Web Client.
What should the administrator do to disable the Virtual SAN?

A.    Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machines to another datastore then use the vSphere 5.5
Client to disable the Virtual SAN.
B.    Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machines to another datastore then use the vSphere 5.5
Web Client to disable the Virtual SAN.
C.    Use the vSphere 5.5 Client to disable the Virtual SAN, which will automatically migrate the virtual
machines via the Storage DRS feature.
D.    Use the vSphere 5.5 Web Client to disable the Virtual SAN, which will automatically migrate the virtual
machines via the Storage DRS feature.

Answer: B

Which VLAN configuration requires switch connectivity defined as an access port?

A.    Private VLAN
B.    External Switch Tagging
C.    Virtual Guest Tagging
D.    Virtual Switch Tagging

Answer: B

An administrator is planning a vSphere infrastructure with the following specific networking requirements:
– The ability to shape inbound (RX) traffic
– Support for Private VLANs (PVLANs)
– Support for LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol)
What is the minimum vSphere Edition that will support these requirements?

A.    vSphere Essentials Plus
B.    vSphere Standard
C.    vSphere Enterprise
D.    vSphere Enterprise Plus

Answer: D

An administrator is using vSphere Replication to replicate a number of virtual machines to a recovery site. The administrator plans on enabling Storage DRS on the production site, which is running vSphere 5.5. What changes must be made in order to support this configuration?

A.    Storage DRS can be added to the existing configuration without any configuration changes
B.    Disable Storage DRS on the virtual machines utilizing vSphere Replication
C.    Change the Recovery Point Objective for the replicated virtual machines to support the additional
synchronization time
D.    Storage DRS cannot be used in conjunction with vSphere Replication

Answer: A

A number of virtual machines in a vSphere 5.5 DRS cluster are connected to the same virtual switch port group. After several of these VMs are migrated to another host, an administrator notices that they have lost network connectivity. The Events tab in vCenter Server shows this error message:
Failed to initialize ethernet0.
The vmkernel log file on the host running the affected VMs contains this message:
Can’t connect device:’port group name’: Out of resources.
Which caused this issue?

A.    Network I/O Control was enabled.
B.    The DRS cluster containing the VMs was set to Fully Automated with the Migration Threshold set
to Conservative.
C.    There were insufficient uplinks configured on the virtual switches.
D.    The virtual switch port allocation was changed from the default setting.

Answer: D

Which Single Sign-On deployment mode should an administrator use for two 5.x vCenter Servers configured with linked mode?

A.    Basic Single Sign-On with vCenter Server Heartbeat
B.    Multisite Single Sign-On
C.    Basic Single Sign-On
D.    Single Sign-On with Linked Mode

Answer: B

Immediately after installing an ESXi host, an administrator needs to examine the following log files:
Which two connections would allow an administrator to examine these files? (Choose two.)

A.    Connecting to the Direct Console User Interface
B.    Attaching a vSphere Client directly to the ESXi host
C.    Attaching the vSphere Web Client directly to the ESXi host
D.    Attaching the vSphere Client to the vCenter Server managing the ESXi host

Answer: AB

An administrator is upgrading a vSphere Distributed Switch. The existing switch is version 5.0 and the administrator wants to upgrade to the latest version possible. The environment contains several ESXi 5.1 hosts.
Which two options are available to ensure that the upgraded switch will be compatible with these hosts? (Choose two.)

A.    Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
B.    Upgrade the ESXi 5.1 hosts to version 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
C.    Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.1
D.    Upgrade the ESXi host switches to 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5

Answer: BC

To avoid unnecessary planned downtime, what is the minimum version of VMware Tools that, if installed, will decrease the need for virtual machine reboots following VMware Tools upgrades?

A.    5.5
B.    5.1
C.    5.0
D.    4.1

Answer: B

A vSphere administrator upgrades a version 5.1.0 vSphere Distributed Switch to version 5.5.0. Another vSphere administrator, unaware of this change, tries to add an ESXi version 5.1.0 host to the switch and fails.
What is causing this addition of the ESXi host to fail?

A.    The upgraded switch supports version 5.5 ESXi hosts only.
B.    The upgraded switch must be set up for backwards compatibility.
C.    The switch failed to upgrade properly.
D.    A version 5.5 ESXi host must be added to the switch before the 5.1 host.

Answer: A

The vSphere administrator needs to migrate a virtual machine from one ESXi 5.5 host to another ESXi 5.5 host. The virtual machine has a virtual disk that is stored in local storage.
Assuming only the vSphere Essentials licensing is in place, which technique should the administrator use to accomplish the migration?

A.    vMotion migration
B.    Cold migration
C.    Enhanced vMotion migration
D.    Storage vMotion migration

Answer: B

A host in a 4-node HA\DRS cluster has failed. HA initiates restart tasks for the virtual machines on the remaining hosts in the cluster but half of them fail to restart.
What is the likely reason virtual machines fail to restart?

A.    HA admission control is blocking the restart of the virtual machines due to insufficient resources to
support the configured failover level of the cluster.
B.    The vMotion network has failed on the remaining hosts preventing the virtual machines from migrating.
C.    Storage vMotion has failed on the datastore containing the virtual machines preventing them from migrating.
D.    The failed host was the Master host in the cluster and no other hosts are able to perform the necessary
HA function to restart the virtual machines.

Answer: A
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The VMware vCenter Server Appliance has been deployed using default settings.
What user name and password are used to log in to the administration interface to configure the appliance?

A.    The initial user name and password must be supplied on the first login attempt.
B.    The initial user name and password must be supplied during deployment.
C.    The initial user name is root and the password is blank.
D.    The initial user name is root and the password is vmware.

Answer: D

How can you verify vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) is enabled?

A.    “VAAI” listed on the Hard Disk properties page for any VMDK stored on a compliant array
B.    “Hardware Acceleration” listed on the Hard Disk properties page for any VMDK stored on a compliant array
C.    “VAAI” column for any datastore created on a compliant array
D.    “Hardware Acceleration” column for any datastore created on a compliant array

Answer: C

What are two consequences of deleting an VMFS datastore from an ESXi host? (Choose two.)

A.    The datastore is unaccessible from all connected ESX/ESXi hosts.
B.    The datastore and all virtual machines are removed from the storage device.
C.    The datastore and all virtual machines remain on the storage device.
D.    The datastore is only removed from that specific ESX/ESXi host.

Answer: AB

How is the page file for a Windows guest operating system or the swap partition for a Linux guest operating system created?

A.    By the ESXi host
B.    By the guest operating system
C.    By the vCenter server
D.    By the vCenter cluster

Answer: B

When deploying an OVF template, what file format will the resulting virtual disk be?

A.    OVF
B.    VMDK
C.    VMX
D.    VSWP

Answer: B

An administrator decides to use Data Recovery to back up some key virtual machines. What is the process to install Data Recovery?

A.    Download the vmdk and vmx files from VMware.com and copy to a datastore. Right-click the vmx file
and select Add to Inventory.
B.    Download the .exe from VMware.com and run from the vSphere Client machine.
C.    Use the vCenter Installer from the original vCenter media and select “vSphere Data Recovery”.
D.    Download OVF from VMware.com onto the vSphere Client machine and use Deploy OVF Template.

Answer: D

Which are three use cases for vSphere Fault Tolerance? (Choose three.)

A.    Provide guaranteed reliability for a legacy Windows NT virtual machine
B.    Provide efficient scheduled reliability for a payroll virtual machine
C.    Guarantee up-time for a virtual machine – VMFILE01 with a 4GB RDM
D.    Ensure up-time for a Linux virtual machine without making any changes to the OS
E.    Provide guaranteed reliability for a development virtual machine with scheduled snapshots

Answer: ABD

Which two statements are true about VLANs and portgroups defined on a vSphere Standard Switch? (Choose two.)

A.    A VLAN can be accessed by the entire virtual switch or individual portgroups.
B.    VLANs can be configured only on individual portgroups.
C.    Multiple portgroups are restricted from accessing the same VLAN.
D.    Multiple VLANs can be accessed by virtual machines connected to one portgroup.

Answer: AD

What is the default VFAT scratch partition size for ESXi 5.x?

A.    4GB
B.    600MB
C.    544MB
D.    None

Answer: A

The VMware vCenter Server Appliance offers many features of the Windows application version. Which of the following features is only available on the Windows application version of vCenter?

A.    Host Profiles
B.    Template and clone customization
C.    Active Directory authentication
D.    Linked Mode

Answer: D

Which condition produces a warning message but will allow a VMotion migration to proceed?

A.    A virtual machine has an active connection to the ESXi host’s CD-ROM drive
B.    A virtual machine has a CPU affinity set to run on a specific CPU.
C.    A virtual machine is in an MSCS Cluster relationship with another virtual machine
D.    A virtual machine is configured to use an internal virtual switch but is not connected to the switch

Answer: D

An administrator finds that an ESXi host cannot be managed by vCenter Server. Which three logs can be reviewed using the DCUI? (Choose three.)

A.    The ESXi shell logs
B.    The HA agent logs
C.    The management agent log
D.    The vmkernel log
E.    The VMware ESXi Observation log

Answer: CDE

Which two actions have no effect on the amount of physical memory resources used for virtualization overhead? (Choose two.)

A.    Installing a 64-bit versus 32-bit operating system.
B.    Increasing the amount of RAM in the virtual machine.
C.    Increasing the number of virtual CPUs in the virtual machine.
D.    Increasing the memory shares for the virtual machine.

Answer: AD

An administrator determines that a virtual machine configured for the Development port group lost network connectivity when it was migrated with vMotion from one ESXi 5.x host to another. The administrator notices that machines configured for the Production port group are not experiencing the issue. The hosts have port groups with the following network configuration:
Host A:
1. Production (VLAN 100)
2. Development
Host B:
1. Production (VLAN 100)
2. Development (VLAN 200)
Which two conditions would explain the loss of network connectivity for the virtual machine? (Choose two.)

A.    The configured VLAN for Production on Host A is incorrect.
B.    The configured VLAN for Development on Host B is incorrect.
C.    An improper native VLAN is configured on the uplinks to Host A.
D.    An improper native VLAN is configured on the uplinks to Host B.

Answer: BC

An administrator is setting up vMotion in a vSphere environment. A migration is run to test the configuration, but fails. On which vSphere component does vMotion need to be enabled?

A.    vCenter Server
B.    Virtual Machine port group
C.    VMkernel port group
D.    vNetwork Standard Switch

Answer: C
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Which tool helps to create Cloud services?

A.    Service planning tool
B.    Service creation tool
C.    Service management tool
D.    Service monitoring tool

Answer: C

Which technique enables making physical resources appear as logical resources?

A.    Virtualization
B.    Utility computing
C.    Self provisioning
D.    Grid computing

Answer: A

Which is an essential characteristic of the Cloud?

A.    Resource planning
B.    Resource utilization
C.    Resource pooling
D.    Resource reservation

Answer: C

Which is a key step in building a Cloud Infrastructure?

A.    Automate resource classification
B.    Automate service provisioning
C.    Centralize services and resources
D.    Customize services and resources

Answer: B

What is the benefit of a RAID?

A.    Improves storage systems performance
B.    Prevents disk failure in a RAID Set
C.    Ensures data integrity in a RAID set
D.    Simplifies distribution of parity across mirrored disks

Answer: A

Which statement is true about FC SAN?

A.    Enables object level access to data
B.    Supports a maximum of 256 nodes
C.    Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS
D.    Has limited ability to share resources

Answer: C

Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support new business initiatives dynamically?

A.    Capacity
B.    Manageability
C.    Availability
D.    Flexibility

Answer: D

Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and availability of a RAID set?

A.    Number of drives in a RAID set and the capacity of each drive
B.    Number of RAID controllers and type of RAID implementation
C.    Number of drives is a RAID set and type of RAID implementation
D.    Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level

Answer: D

Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data center?

A.    Security
B.    Flexibility
C.    Scalability
D.    Availability

Answer: D

What is stored in a virtual machine log file?

A.    Virtual machine BIOS information
B.    Information of virtual machine’s activities
C.    Information of virtual machine’s configuration
D.    Virtal machine’s RAM contents

Answer: B

Which parameter determines the maximum amount of resource that a virtual machine can consume?

A.    Limit
B.    Share
C.    Priority
D.    Reservation

Answer: A

Which technology enables a physical CPU to appear as two or more logical CPUs?

A.    Ballooning
B.    Multi-core
C.    Hyper-threading
D.    Load balancing

Answer: C

Which Virtual Machine File System feature ensures that a virtual machine is not powered on by multiple compute systems at the same time?

A.    On-power lock
B.    On-compute lock
C.    On-disk lock
D.    On-VM lock

Answer: C

Which is the primary function of hypervisor

A.    Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine
B.    Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine
C.    Allows authorization to virtual machine resources to users
D.    Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a physical machine

Answer: D

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Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the host when it has not been accessed for a while?

A.    LRU
B.    HWM
C.    LWM
D.    MRU

Answer: A

What does the area ID of the FC address identify?

A.    Group of ports within a switch
B.    An individual port within a fabric
C.    Location of the name server within the fabric
D.    Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric

Answer: A

An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?

A.    Source devices must be healthy
B.    Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices
C.    Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices
D.    All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts

Answer: A

Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet communications?

A.    Converged network adapter
B.    TCP Offload Engine NIC
C.    FCIP bridging adapter
D.    iSCSI host bus adapter

Answer: A

What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing?

A.    Defining cloud service attributes
B.    Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers
C.    Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer
D.    Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services

Answer: A

Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?

A.    RecoverPoint
B.    NetWorker
C.    Avamar
D.    Data Domain

Answer: A

What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?

A.    Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume
B.    Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration
C.    Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine
D.    Both hypervisors must have the same IP address

Answer: A

Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?

A.    IQN
B.    EUI
C.    WWNN
D.    WWPN

Answer: A

Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved as it was received?

A.    Integrity
B.    Availability
C.    Security
D.    Performance

Answer: A

What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?

A.    Area on which the read/write head rests
B.    Area where the read/write head lands to access data
C.    Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters
D.    Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk

Answer: A
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Users must be able to connect remotely from their own mobile devices.
What should the architect consider to increase the security of the current authentication solution?

A.    Adding a second authentication factor
B.    Placing domain controllers in the DMZ for remote users
C.    Shortening the Active Directory password expiration period
D.    Populating the RDS user profile path in the Active Directory user accounts

Answer: D

Which aspect of the new storage system’s performance requirements is critical to the success of the project and should be determined before any purchase takes place?

A.    Whether it supports automatic tiering
B.    The number of SSD drives it will hold
C.    Whether 8Gb/s Fibre Channel or 10Gb/s Ethernet technology provides more storage bandwidth
D.    The number of IOPS it must support to host the required amount of pooled and dedicated virtual desktops

Answer: A

The architect needs to evaluate the options for replicating user profiles across all sites.
Which two pieces of information should the architect collect to analyze the options? (Choose two.)

A.    WAN traffic
B.    License requirements
C.    Storage infrastructure
D.    Database configuration

Answer: BD

What are two potential risks in the existing environment that the architect must address in the proposed virtual solution? (Choose two.)

A.    Local profiles are used and administrators manually delete them when necessary.
B.    Installation of PositivelyPeople is performed manually based on a thoroughly documented process.
C.    No logon scripts are enabled for users because the company abandoned logon scripts last year in favor
of GPOs.
D.    Users log on to the company environment based on Active Directory credentials, but the PositivelyFinance
application requires secondary credentials.

Answer: AB

Which solution meets the criteria for reducing the general IT costs for the Research and Training user group to access their applications?

A.    VM Hosted applications
B.    Streamed server OS machines
C.    Dedicated desktop OS machines
D.    Pooled desktop OS machine with Personal vDisk

Answer: B

Scenario: Users from a remote research lab have very limited WAN bandwidth to their nearest datacenter. The users need to print over the WAN.
What should an architect recommend to optimize printer bandwidth?

A.    Optimize WAN traffic through CloudBridge.
B.    Increase the WAN bandwidth through a WAN link upgrade.
C.    Restrict overall session bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
D.    Restrict printer redirection bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.

Answer: A

The architect recommended pooled desktop OS machines with Personal vDisks for the Nurses, Imaging, and Radiology user group. How should an engineer implement antivirus software on these desktop OS machines?

A.    Install the antivirus software into the base image.
B.    Deploy the antivirus package as an App-V application.
C.    Deploy the antivirus software through a Group Policy startup script.
D.    Install the antivirus software in the master Personal vDisk as a user-installed application.

Answer: A

Which endpoint devices must be replaced to support the Streamed VHD method of desktop delivery?

A.    Windows 7
B.    Windows XP
C.    Linux thin clients
D.    PCs running Internet Explorer 7

Answer: C

The company plans to reduce their storage requirement by using thin provisioning with XenServer hosts. Which storage option should the architect verify for capability in the current environment?

A.    NFS
B.    CIFS
C.    iSCSI
D.    Fibre Channel

Answer: A

Which consideration is unnecessary for the PositivelyPeople application in the new environment?

A.    File security
B.    Secure remote access
C.    Access to legacy mainframe
D.    Support for secured print jobs

Answer: C
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A Citrix Engineer needs to enable high availability on the XenServer host.
What are two requirements for the environment? (Choose two.)

A.    Workload Balancing has to be disabled.
B.    A static IP address must be set on the management interface.
C.    XenServer hosts need to be part of a XenServer resource pool.
D.    A dedicated management interface for high availability must be created.
E.    A shared storage repository needs to be available for heartbeat and metadata.

Answer: CE

When using diskless VM with Provisioning Services, which two steps does a Citrix Engineer need to perform for Active Directory Domain Management? (Choose two.)

A.    Enable Target Device Management.
B.    Enable Automatic Device Management.
C.    Enable Automatic Password Management.
D.    Enable Machine Account Password Management.

Answer: CD

Scenario: Specialists at CCH are reporting that X-ray images are NOT displaying as expected from a quality standpoint. HDX policies are configured with default values.
What should a Citrix Engineer do to make sure X-ray images are displayed with the best possible quality?

A.    Set the lossy compression level to None.
B.    Set the Flash latency threshold to 50 ms.
C.    Set the progressive display level to High.
D.    Set the extra color compression threshold to 1024 Kbps.

Answer: A

CCH requires that every Change at Site configuration is documented for auditing and needs to prevent undocumented changes to the Site configuration.
Which two actions should a Citrix Engineer perform to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A.    Ensure that Configuration logging is enabled.
B.    Configure logging for the Site database on the SQL Server.
C.    Enable Windows Security Settings – Audit Policy using Group Policy.
D.    Disable the ‘Allow changes when the database is disconnected’ option on the Configuration database.

Answer: AD

A Citrix Engineer creates a new Delivery Controller and needs to join it to an existing Site to increase Site redundancy. Which database user role permissions does the engineer need?

A.    db_owner and db_datawriter permissions
B.    db_accessadmin and dbcreator permissions
C.    db_accessadmin and db_ddladmin permissions
D.    db_securityadmin and dbm_monitor permissions

Answer: A

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer must use Provisioning Services to provision 50 desktop OS machines. The engineer has installed and configured two Provisioning Services servers to guarantee high availability and now needs to configure the write cache location of the virtual desktops so that failover is possible in case one of the Provisioning Services servers fails.
Which three write cache locations could the engineer choose? (Choose three.)

A.    In the RAM of the virtual desktop
B.    On a Citrix ShareFile storage zone
C.    On a persistent disk attached to the virtual desktop
D.    On the local disk of both Provisioning Services servers
E.    On a fileshare connected to both Provisioning Services servers

Answer: ACE

A Citrix Engineer needs to install a new Delivery Controller with database mirroring.
Which two editions of SQL Server support database mirroring? (Choose two.)

A.    SQL Server 2012 Express
B.    SQL Server 2005 SP3 Enterprise
C.    SQL Server 2012 SP1 Enterprise
D.    SQL Server 2008 R2 SP2 Standard

Answer: CD

The IT Help Desk Administrator at CCH needs to shadow a user session for application troubleshooting purposes. Which two permissions need to be set in the environment? (Choose two.)

A.    Read-Only Administrator
B.    Microsoft Group Policy settings for RDS
C.    Microsoft Group Policy settings for Remote Assistance
D.    Perform Remote Assistance on a machine role permission

Answer: CD

Scenario: A hosted application reverts to the default settings every time users log off. The application writes configuration data to C:\myapp\data\settings.ini file.
What should a Citrix Engineer create to ensure the user settings are saved?

A.    A custom Machine HDX policy
B.    A logon script renaming C:\myapp\data\
C.    A policy setting for File System Synchronization
D.    A scheduled task relocating C:\myapp\data\ directory

Answer: C

A Citrix Engineer needs to configure Citrix StoreFront load balancing on NetScaler and forward the Receiver system IP address.
What should the engineer type into the Client IP Header field on the service group Advanced tab to accomplish this task?

A.    Client-IP
B.    Source-IP
C.    User-agent
D.    X-forwarded-for

Answer: D

A Citrix Engineer at CCH needs to use Universal Print Server to simplify printer driver management in a XenDesktop environment.
Which policy should the engineer configure to implement Universal Print Server?

A.    Client printer redirection
B.    Auto-create all client printers
C.    Universal Print Server enable
D.    Use universal printing only if requested driver is unavailable

Answer: C

What must be true in order to implement offline profiles with Citrix Profile Management?

A.    Profile streaming must be disabled.
B.    The computer must be joined to a domain.
C.    Active write back must be enabled in the profile definition.
D.    Locally cached profiles must be deleted when users log off.

Answer: B

A Citrix Engineer needs to implement RADIUS as a secondary authentication method for remote access users connecting through NetScaler. Which two steps should the engineer take to ensure correct functionality? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure an Administrator Bind DN.
B.    Configure the sdconf.rec file on the NetScaler.
C.    Add a host entry on the RADIUS server for the NetScaler.
D.    Open the intranet firewall for the NSIP address to the RADIUS server.

Answer: CD

Users who are testing the hosted shared desktop at CCH report that logon time is unacceptably slow. Which three best practices should a Citrix Engineer implement to optimize the logon time for the hosted shared desktops? (Choose three.)

A.    Enable Profile Streaming.
B.    Enable Active Write Back.
C.    Store the UPM profiles on a highly available CIFS share.
D.    Replace logon scripts with GPO preferences where possible.
E.    Redirect common folders such as Documents, Music, and Pictures.

Answer: ADE

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to deploy static desktops with Personal vDisk for the head office staff. The engineer implements a catalog named Windows8-PvD with Personal vDisk enabled and uses Citrix Roaming Profile Management to save user profile settings.
The engineer needs to configure Personal vDisk to NOT store user profile settings. Additionally, Personal vDisk must be configured so that 80% is allocated for applications and 20% is allocated for user profile data.
Which two steps must the engineer take to implement this solution? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure the registry key PercentOfPvDForApps on the master image with a value of 80.
B.    Configure the registry key EnableUserProfileRedirection on the master image with a value of 0.
C.    Run “Set-BrokerDesktopGroup “Windows8-PvD” -PeakBufferSizePercent 80″ on the Delivery Controller.
D.    Configure the registry key EnableDynamicResizeOfAppContainer on the master image with a value of 1.
E.    Run “Set-BrokerDesktopGroup “Windows8-PvD” -OffPeakBufferSizePercent 20″ on the Delivery Controller.

Answer: AB

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Based on the information shown in the attached exhibit, does the XenServer host have sufficient CPU resources available?
Click the Exhibit button to view a screenshot of the Performance Graphs for the XenServer host.

A.    The CPU resources are sufficient, and NO upgrade is required.
B.    The CPU resources are sufficient, but some virtual machines have occasional peaks.
C.    The CPU resources are insufficient; upgrading or running fewer virtual machines is recommended.
D.    The CPU resources are sufficient for now, but running additional virtual machines is NOT recommended.

Answer: A

A Citrix Administrator turned on Provisioning Services auditing. Changes made in the __________, __________ and __________ will be recorded. (Choose the three correct locations to complete the sentence.)

A.    MCLI
B.    SOAP Server
C.    Provisioning Services Console
D.    Provisioning Services BOOTPTAB Editor
E.     Provisioning Services Boot Device Manager

Answer: ABC

Which PowerShell commandlet should a Citrix Administrator use to enable event logging for the authentication service, stores and Receiver for Web?

A.    Set-DSTraceLevel -All -TraceLevel Off
B.    Set-DSTraceLevel -All -TraceLevel Info
C.    Set-DSTraceLevel -All -TraceLevel Verbose
D.    Set-DSTraceLevel -All -TraceLevel Warning

Answer: C

A Citrix Administrator finds that Profile Management is NOT writing .INI files back to the User Profile Store. Which log entry type should the administrator enable in Profile Management logging to see which items are being written to the User Profile Store?

A.    File system actions
B.    Common information
C.    File system notifications
D.    Personalized user information

Answer: A

After configuring Active Directory authentication on a NetScaler VPX appliance, users report that they are unable to authenticate to NetScaler. Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator complete to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose two.)

A.    Validate that port 389 is open to the domain controller.
B.    Enable AAA authentication logging to monitor user authentication attempts.
C.    Run the LDAP browser from the Delivery Controller to validate LDAP connectivity.
D.    Configure a session policy on the NetScaler virtual server to use the LDAP profile.

Answer: AB

A Citrix Administrator needs to shadow a user session from Citrix Director but is unable to connect to the user’s Windows 7 virtual desktop. Which two ports may be blocked by a firewall? (Choose two.)

A.    80
B.    135
C.    443
D.    1494
E.     3389

Answer: B

A Citrix Administrator identifies that Citrix Studio CANNOT communicate with the Delivery Controller database. Which port may be blocked, preventing Citrix Studio from being able to connect to the database?

A.    443
B.    1433
C.    1494
D.    27000

Answer: B

Which three 60-minute historical trends can a Citrix Administrator view when using Citrix Director? (Choose three.)

A.    CPU usage
B.    Machine failures
C.    License checkouts
D.    Connection failures
E.     Concurrent sessions
F.     Memory consumption

Answer: BD

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator replaces the production StoreFront server with a new StoreFront server. Users access their resources from StoreFront through NetScaler. Which NetScaler policy must the administrator modify in order to allow users to continue to access resources securely from external locations?

A.    Traffic
B.    Session
C.    Authorization
D.    Authentication

Answer: B

The Sales team requests that a Citrix Administrator enhance the user experience on tablet devices. Which policy setting should the administrator enable to meet the requirements of the Sales team?

A.    Multimedia Conferencing
B.    Flash Content Redirection
C.    Windows Media Redirection
D.    Launch touch-optimized desktop

Answer: D

A Citrix Administrator needs to ensure that individual support teams are only able to control the delivery groups for their units. Which feature should the administrator configure to ensure that the appropriate teams have administrator access to the desktops for their particular unit?

A.    Scopes
B.    Exclusion filters
C.    User assignment
D.    SmartAccess settings

Answer: A

Which two actions should a Citrix Administrator take prior to deleting desktop OS machines from a machine catalog? (Choose two.)

A.    Turn off the desktop OS machines.
B.    Place the desktop OS machines in maintenance mode.
C.    Remove the desktop OS machines from the hypervisor.
D.    Delete the Active Directory account for the desktop OS machines.
E.     Enable maintenance mode on the hypervisor hosting the desktop OS machines.

Answer: AB

Which two methods could a Citrix Administrator use to ensure that users are able to launch multiple virtual desktop sessions? (Choose two.)

A.    Change the ‘Desktops per user’ setting in the delivery groups settings.
B.    Give the user multiple devices so that they can have a session open on each.
C.    Create two host connections from the Delivery Controller to different hypervisors.
D.    Create two delivery groups from the same catalog and assign the users to both delivery groups.

Answer: AD

A Citrix Administrator publishes an application but receives reports that the application is NOT visible in Receiver through StoreFront. Why is the application NOT visible to users?

A.    The application is disabled.
B.    The path to the executable is incorrect.
C.    There are some user groups NOT assigned to the application.
D.    There are NO available server OS machines in the machine catalog.

Answer: C
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New Simulation: Crimp out a T568B.
White/Orange, Orange, White/Green, Blue, White/Blue, Green, White/Brown, Brown.
A firewall that detects and prevents attacks from outside the network based on learned data patterns can BEST be described as which of the following?

A.    Signature based IDS
B.    Behavior based IPS
C.    Host based IPS
D.    Network based IDS

Answer: B

Which of the following technologies prevents network collisions to maximize safe delivery of network data?

B.    DWDM

Answer: A

Which of the following are authentication methods that can use AAA authentication? (Select TWO).

A.    Kerberos
B.    PKI

Answer: EF

Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the fiber cable connection types to the appropriate image.
A company is connected to an ISP, but owns the premise router with an internal CSU/DSU. Which of the following is considered the demarc?

A.    Premise router
B.    ISP router
C.    Smart jack

Answer: C

An IP camera has a failed PoE NIC. This is the third time in months that a PoE NIC has failed on
this device. The technician suspects a possible power issue. Which of the following should be used to test the theory?

A.    Toner probe
B.    Loopback plug
C.    Protocol analyzer
D.    Multimeter

Answer: D

A technician is troubleshooting a network issue and needs to view network traffic on a switch in real-time. Which of the following would allow the technician to view network traffic on a switch?

B.    Port forwarding
C.    Port security
D.    Port mirroring

Answer: D

A technician finds that the network card is no longer functioning. At which of the following OSI layers is the problem occurring?

A.    Layer 1
B.    Layer 3
C.    Layer 5
D.    Layer 7

Answer: A

The address 6FFE:FFFF:0000:2F3B:04AC:00FF:FEBE:5C4A is an example of which of the following?

B.    MAC
C.    IPv4
D.    IPv6

Answer: D

Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?

A.    Reservations
B.    Lease times
C.    Removing IPs from the active leases
D.    Configuring the DNS options

Answer: A
Reservationsare permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.

A network technician needs to configure a port on a switch to provide connectivity and electrical support to a WAP being installed in a warehouse. Which of the following features needs to be configured on the switch?

A.    STP
B.    PoE
C.    VTP trunking
D.    Port forwarding

Answer: B
Power over Ethernet or PoE describes any of several standardized or ad-hoc systems which pass electrical power along with data on Ethernet cabling. This allows a single cable to provide both data connection and electrical power to devices such as wireless access points or IP cameras.

Which of the following reasons would MOST likely be used to implement QoS and traffic shaping solutions?

A.    Redundancy
B.    Fault tolerance
C.    Unified communications
D.    Uptime requirements

Answer: C
In unified communication video,voice,data have only one end gateway so to give priority to avoid delay in voice and video we use Qos.

Which of the following uses SSL encryption?

A.    SMTP
B.    FTP
D.    SNMP

Answer: C
HTTPSis the result of simply layering the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) on top of the SSL/TLS protocol, thus adding the security capabilities of SSL/TLS to standard HTTP communications.

A network administrator wants to balance the amount of data between two networking cards. Which of the following can be used for two or more networking cards?

A.    NIC bonding
B.    Proxy server
C.    Firewall ACLs
D.    VLANs

Answer: A
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An administrator has a network subnet dedicated to a group of users. Due to concerns regarding data and network security, the administrator desires to provide network access for this group only. Which of the following would BEST address this desire?

A.    Install a proxy server between the users’ computers and the switch to filter inbound network traffic.
B.    Block commonly used ports and forward them to higher and unused port numbers.
C.    Configure the switch to allow only traffic from computers based upon their physical address.
D.    Install host-based intrusion detection software to monitor incoming DHCP Discover requests.

Answer: C

Hotspot Question
Select the appropriate attack from each drop down list to label the corresponding illustrated attack
Instructions: Attacks may only be used once, and will disappear from drop down list if selected. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.

A technician wants to implement a dual factor authentication system that will enable the organization to authorize access to sensitive systems on a need-to-know basis. Which of the following should be implemented during the authorization stage?

A.    Biometrics
B.    Mandatory access control
C.    Single sign-on
D.    Role-based access control

Answer: A

A security researcher wants to reverse engineer an executable file to determine if it is malicious. The file was found on an underused server and appears to contain a zero-day exploit. Which of the following can the researcher do to determine if the file is malicious in nature?

A.    TCP/IP socket design review
B.    Executable code review
C.    OS Baseline comparison
D.    Software architecture review

Answer: C

Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:
– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
Use the following answer for this simulation task. Below table has all the answers required for this question.

Drag and Drop Question
You have been tasked with designing a security plan for your company.
Drag and drop the appropriate security controls on the floor plan.
All objects must be used and all place holders must be filled Order does not matter
When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.

Matt, the network engineer, has been tasked with separating network traffic between virtual machines on a single hypervisor. Which of the following would he implement to BEST address this requirement? (Select TWO).

A.    Virtual switch
B.    NAT
C.    System partitioning
D.    Access-list
E.    Disable spanning tree
F.    VLAN

Answer: AF

Which of the following BEST describes a demilitarized zone?

A.    A buffer zone between protected and unprotected networks.
B.    A network where all servers exist and are monitored.
C.    A sterile, isolated network segment with access lists.
D.    A private network that is protected by a firewall and a VLAN.

Answer: A

XYZ Corporation is about to purchase another company to expand its operations. The CEO is concerned about information leaking out, especially with the cleaning crew that comes in at night. The CEO would like to ensure no paper files are leaked. Which of the following is the BEST policy to implement?

A.    Social media policy
B.    Data retention policy
C.    CCTV policy
D.    Clean desk policy

Answer: D

The administrator would like to implement hardware assisted full disk encryption on laptops. Which of the following would MOST likely be used to meet this goal?

A.    TPM
B.    USB Drive
C.    Key Escrow
D.    PKI

Answer: A

A security administrator wants to check user password complexity. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use?

A.    Password history
B.    Password logging
C.    Password cracker
D.    Password hashing

Answer: C

Certificates are used for: (Select TWO).

A.    Client authentication.
B.    WEP encryption.
C.    Access control lists.
D.    Code signing.
E.    Password hashing.

Answer: AD

Which of the following is a hardware based encryption device?

A.    EFS
B.    TrueCrypt
C.    TPM
D.    SLE

Answer: C

Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection?

A.    Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities
B.    Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic
C.    Validating user input in web applications
D.    Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers

Answer: C

Which of the following MOST interferes with network-based detection techniques?

A.    Mime-encoding
B.    SSL
C.    FTP
D.    Anonymous email accounts

Answer: B

A UNIX administrator would like to use native commands to provide a secure way of connecting to other devices remotely and to securely transfer files. Which of the following protocols could be utilized? (Select TWO).

A.    RDP
B.    SNMP
C.    FTP
D.    SCP
E.    SSH

Answer: DE

Sara, a user, downloads a keygen to install pirated software. After running the keygen, system performance is extremely slow and numerous antivirus alerts are displayed. Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware?

A.    Logic bomb
B.    Worm
C.    Trojan
D.    Adware

Answer: C

Which of the following would Matt, a security administrator, use to encrypt transmissions from an internal database to an internal server, keeping in mind that the encryption process must add as little latency to the process as possible?

A.    ECC
B.    RSA
C.    SHA
D.    3DES

Answer: D

Which of the following describes the process of removing unnecessary accounts and services from an application to reduce risk exposure?

A.    Error and exception handling
B.    Application hardening
C.    Application patch management
D.    Cross-site script prevention

Answer: B

Which of the following MUST Matt, a security administrator, implement to verify both the integrity and authenticity of a message while requiring a shared secret?

B.    MD5
C.    SHA
D.    HMAC

Answer: D
Passing your CompTIA Security+ SY0-301 Exam by using the latest CompTIA Security+ SY0-301 Exam Demo Full Version:  http://www.braindump2go.com/sy0-301.html

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