2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-822 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You have assigned rights profiles directly to the uses frank and now you want to add another profile. Which command enables you to list profiles directly assigned to frank?

A.    userattr profiles frank
B.    profiles – p frank
C.    useratter -p frank
D.    profiles frank

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26502_01/html/E36219/rights-1.html (see the example 9-1)

Continue reading

2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-821 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What determines which bits in an IP address represent the subnet, and which represent the host?

A.    Subnet
B.    unicast
C.    netmask
D.    multicast
E.    broadcast

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two accurately identify features of a Solaris 10 branded zone?

A.    executes in a Solaris 10 global zone
B.    is created by importing a Solaris 10 flash archive
C.    enables Linux binary applications to run unmodified
D.    provides a complete runtime environment for Solaris 9 applications
E.    allows a Solaris 10 global zone to be migrated into a Solaris 10 non-global zone on a Solaris 11 system

Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
You are troubleshooting a newly installed desktop Oracle Solaris 11 system with a single network interface. From this system, you can connect to other systems within the company intranet, but cannot access any external services (such as websites and email), even when using IP addresses. Examining the routing table confirms that the default route to 192.168.1.1 is missing. DHCP is not used at this site. Which two commands will temporarily mid permanently configure the default route?

A.    ipadm set-gateway 192.168.1.1
B.    route add default 192.168.1.1
C.    ipadm set-default 192.168.1.1
D.    dladm route-add –d 192.168.1.1
E.    echo 192.168.1.1 >/etc/gateway
F.    echo 192.168.1.1 >/etc/defaultrouter

Answer: BF

QUESTION 4
You want the system to generate an email notification each time one of the services has changed its state. Which option would send an email message to the system administrator whenever a service changes to the maintenance state?

A.    Use the setsc command in ALOM to enable the mail alerts to be sent to a specified email address
whenever the fault management facility detects a service change to the maintenance state.
B.    Make an entry in the /etc/syslog.conf file to instruct syslogd to send an email alert when it receives
a message from the SMF facility that a service has changed to the maintenance state.
C.    Use the svccfg setnotify command to create a notification and send an email when a service enters
the maintenance state.
D.    Use the scvadm command to enable the notification service. Set the -gmaintenance option on the
netnotify service to send an email when a service enters the maintenance state.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
How are operating system updates distributed in the Oracle Solaris 11 environment?

A.    Updates are only available to customers with an active support contract. The updates are distributed
through the My Oracle Support web portal and installed in a central location. All software packages are
then updated manually from the command line using the smpatch command.
B.    Patches are download from http: //support.oracle.com either automatically or manually. All software
packages are then updated manually from the command line using the smpatch or patchadd commands.
C.    Software updates are published as packages to a repository. All software packages are then updated
manually from the command line using the pkg command.
D.    Software updates, published as packages to an OS image. All software packages are then updated
manually from the command line using the pkg command.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
User jack, whose account is configured to use the korn shell, logs in and examines the value of his PATH environment variable:
jack@solaris: echo $PATH
/usr/gnu/bin:/usr/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin
There is a shell script in jack’s home directory called useradd:
-r-xr-xr-x 2 jack other 1239 2012-01-05 11:42 useradd
While in his home directory, jack attempts to run the script:
jack@solaris: useradd
What will happen, and why?

A.    He will get a “file not found” error, because the current directory is not in his seaech path.
B.    He will get a “file not found” error, because his home directory is not in his search path.
C.    The useradd script will execute, because jack is in the same directory that the script is located in.
D.    The command /user/sbin/useradd will execute, because it is the last match in the search path.
E.    The command /user/sbin/useradd will execute, because it is the first match in the search path.

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
User jack on host solaris attempts to use ssh to log in to host oracle and receives this message:
jack@solaris:~$ ssh oracle
ssh: connect to host oracle port 22: connection refused
What is the problem?

A.    Host oracle does not have a valid host public key.
B.    Host oracle does not have a valid host private key.
C.    Host solaris does not have a valid host public key.
D.    Host does not have a valid host private key.
E.    Host solaris is not configured for host-based authentication.
F.    Host oracle is not configured for host-based authentication.
G.    Host oracle is not running the ssh service.
H.    Host solaris is not running the ssh service.

Answer: G

QUESTION 8
When speaking in an Oracle Support Engineer, you are asked to verify the version of the Solaris 11 build currently running on your system. Which command would display the Solaris 11 build version currently running on your system?

A.    pkg info all
B.    cat /etc/release
C.    cat /etc/update
D.    prtconf | grep -i update
E.    pkg info entire

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to configure an ISCSI target device on your x86 based Oracle Solaris II system. While configuring the iSCSI device, the following error is displayed:
bash: stmfadm: command not found
Which option describes the solution to the problem?

A.    The COMSTAR feature is not supported on the x86 platform. The feature is supported only on the
SPARC platform.
B.    Use the iscsitadm command on the x86 platform when configuring an iSCSI target.
C.    Install the storage-server group package on this system.
D.    Start the iSCSI target daemon on this system.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your SPARC server will not boot into multi user-server milestones and you need to troubleshoot to out why. You need to start the server with minimal services running so that you can go through each milestone manually to troubleshoot the issue.
Select the option that boots the server with the fewest services running.

A.    boot -s
B.    boot milestone none
C.    boot -m milestone=single-user
D.    boot -m milestone=none
E.    boot -m none

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
user1 is attempting to assist user2 with terminating user2’s process 1234.
user1 entered the following: kill -9 1234
Why does the process continue to run?

A.    You can kill a process only if you are root.
B.    You can kill only a process that you own.
C.    You can kill the process only with the pkill command.
D.    You need to kill the process with a stronger kill signal.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your server has one zone named dbzone (hat has been configured, but not yet installed). Which command would you use to view all the options that were used to configure this zone?

A.    zoneadm list -icv dbzone
B.    zones tat –c summary dbzone
C.    zonecfg –z dbzone info
D.    zonecfg -icv dbzone info

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Your users are experiencing delay issues while using their main application that requires connections to remote hosts. You run the command uptime and get the flowing output:
1:07am up 346 day(s), 12:03, 4 users, load average: 0.02, 0.02, 0.01
Which command will be useful in your next step of troubleshooting?

A.    ipadm
B.    traceroute
C.    dladm
D.    snoop
E.    arp

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
When upgrading an existing system from Solaris 10 to Oracle Solaris 11, what happens to the datalink names?

A.    They follow the default naming convention for the newly installed version.
B.    They maintain their names.
C.    They are called eth#.
D.    They are called el00g#.
E.    They are left unnamed, to avoid conflicts, and need to be renamed after the installation process is
complete.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have installed software updates to a new boot environment (BE) and have activated that the booting to the new BE, you notice system errors. You want to boot to the last known good configuration. Which option would you use on a SPARC system to boot to the currentBE boot environment?

A.    boot -l currentBE
B.    boot -z rpool/ROOT/currentBE
C.    boot -a Enter the currentBE dataset name when prompted.
D.    boot rpool/ROOT/currentBE
E.    boot -m currentBE
F.    beadm activate currentBE

Answer: F
Passing your Oracle 1Z0-821 Exam by using the latest 1Z0-821 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1z0-821.html

2014 Latest CompTIA LX0-101 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You need to generate a report on all of the Exchange Server 2007 computers in your Exchange organization. The report must include:
– Operating system versionNumber of processors
– Total physical memory
– Number of storage groups
– Number of mailbox databases
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-ExchangeServer | Format-List cmdlet.
B.    Run the Get-OrganizationConfig cmdlet.
C.    Run the Test-SystemHealth cmdlet.
D.    Run the Health Check scan in the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
After a brief network outage, your monitoring system alerts you that a significant number of SMTP queues on your Hub Transport server are in a retry status. You need to force the Hub Transport
server to send the queued e-mail immediately. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Retry-queue -filter {status -eq “retry”}
B.    Retry-queue -filter {status -eq “suspended”}
C.    Resume-queue -filter {status -eq “retry”}
D.    Resume-queue -filter {status -eq “suspended”}

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Some of your companys mobile sales representatives use portable computers that run Microsoft Office Outlook 2007 and are configured to connect to your Exchange Server 2007 organization by using Outlook Anywhere. You need to monitor your environment to verify that these mobile users are able to connect to the Exchange organization, and that performance meets or exceeds the company standard. Which two cmdlets should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Test-MAPIConnectivity
B.    Test-OutlookWebServices
C.    Test-WebServicesConnectivity
D.    Test-ServiceHealth
E.    Get-MailboxStatistics

Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
The servers in your Exchange Server 2007 environment are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[16]
Internal users report that they are not receiving external e-mail. You use the Exchange Queue Viewer on your desktop computer to investigate the problem. You do not see any messages in the queue.
You need to be able to view the undelivered messages.
What should you do?

A.    Open the Queue Viewer on Server2.
B.    Run the Get-Queue -Identity Server3 cmdlet.
C.    Modify the Refresh interval (seconds) option in Queue Viewer.
D.    Modify the Number of items to display per page option in Queue Viewer.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your native Exchange Server 2007 organization contains 10 Exchange servers. The roles on these servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[18]
You need to generate a single report that indicates the number of disconnected mailboxes in your environment and how much storage space these mailboxes consume. You need to export the report to a file.
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-MailboxServer | Get-MailboxStatistics | Where {$_.DisconnectDate -ne $null} | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet.
B.    Run the Get-Mailbox | Get-MailboxStatistics | Where {$_.DisconnectDate -ne $null} | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-Recipient -RecipientType MailboxUser | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet. Then, open disconnect.csv and remove all entries for active mailboxes.
D.    In the Exchange Management Console, expand the Recipient Configuration work center and select the Disconnected Mailbox node.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You want to gather information about user connectivity on an Exchange Server 2007 Mailbox server named Exch1. You need to generate a report of all Exch1 mailboxes that displays the latest user logon time. What should you do?

A.    In Performance Monitor, add the Active Client Logons counter with _Total instances from the MSExchangeIS Mailbox object.
B.    Run the Get-Mailbox -Server Exch1 cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-MailboxStatistics -Server Exch1 cmdlet.
D.    Run the Get-LogonStatistics -Server Exch1 cmdlet.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your Exchange Server 2007 organization has three Exchange servers, as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[20]
A user in your Exchange organization sends a message to a recipient outside of your company. The recipients address is marc@contoso.com, and Latest Sales Figures is the subject of the message. Your user reports that the message has not been delivered. You need to find out whether the message has left your Exchange organization. Which cmdlet should you run on the Hub Transport server?

A.    Get-Recipient -Filter {PrimarySmtpAddress -eq “marc@contoso.com”}
B.    Get-Message -Filter {Subject -eq “Latest Sales Figures”}
C.    Get-Queue -Filter {NextHopDomain -eq “contoso.com”}
D.    Get-queue -Filter {status -eq “retry”}

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to find out the total size of a users mailbox. What should you do?

A.    Run the Database Troubleshooter in the Exchange Troubleshooting Assistant.
B.    Run the Get-MailboxDatabase cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet.
D.    Run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2007 environment. You need to create a performance baseline report. What should you do?

A.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Health Check scan.
B.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Connectivity Test scan.
C.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Exchange 2007 Readiness Check scan.
D.    Use the Performance Troubleshooter tool.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
The Hub Transport server role resides on an Exchange Server 2007 computer named ExchHub1. Message tracking is enabled. Written company privacy policy states that the subject line of e-mail messages should not be stored in the tracking log. You need to track e-mail messages from ExchHub1 while complying with company policy. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-TransportServer ExchHub1 -MessageTrackingLogEnabled:$false
B.    Set-TransportServer ExchHub1 MessageTrackingLogSubjectLoggingEnabled:$false
C.    Set-ReceiveConnector -ProtocolLoggingLevel None
D.    Get-MessageTrackingLog -Subject None

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your Exchange Server 2007 organization contains two Exchange servers. The roles on the two servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[22]
Two users named Marc and Maria have mailboxes on ExchMb1. Marcs computer is on segment A. Marias computer is on segment B. The Exchange servers are on segment C. Marc sends a message to Maria. The message leaves Marcs Outbox and is listed in his Sent Items folder. However, the message is never delivered to Maria’s mailbox. You need to find out the most likely cause of the problem.
What should you do?

A.    On ExchMb1, run the Test-ServiceHealth cmdlet.
B.    On ExchHub1, run the Test-ServiceHealth cmdlet.
C.    On ExchMb1, run the Test-MAPIConnectivity -Server ExchMb1 cmdlet.
D.    On a computer on segment A, run the Test-MAPIConnectivity -Server ExchMb1 cmdlet.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your environment consists of servers that have either Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2003 installed. You create a policy to restrict the number of recipients that are allowed per message. You need to ensure that the policy is enforced for all users. What should you do?

A.    Set organizational limits.
B.    Set server limits.
C.    Set global limits.
D.    Set connector limits.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are preparing to configure e-mail retention on three managed custom folders for all mailboxes on an Exchange Server 2007 computer named Exch1.
You perform the following actions.
Create three managed custom folders.
Create managed content settings for each folder, and configure the required retention settings. Create a new managed folder mailbox policy named MailRet. Add each managed custom folder to the MailRet policy.
Configure the managed folder assistant for Exch1.
You need to finish configuring the messaging records management (MRM) retention settings so that the three folders are available for the mailboxes on Exch1.
What should you do?

A.    For each mailbox on Exch1, select the Enable retention hold for items in this mailbox check box.
B.    For each mailbox on Exch1, add the MailRet policy.
C.    Add managed content settings to the three managed custom folders.
D.    Create a new managed folder mailbox policy for each of the three managed custom folders.

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A new virus is discovered in your Exchange Server 2007 organization. The file extension is .ext for this virus. The current settings for attachment filtering are configured to delete specified attachments and allow the message to be delivered. However, the virus files are not being filtered. You must stop the spread of this new virus. Neither the attachment nor the e-mail message should reach the e-mail recipient. The message that contains the virus should not generate a non-delivery report (NDR). You need to add a filter for the file extension of the virus. Which two cmdlets should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add-AttachmentFilterEntry -Name *.ext -type ContentType
B.    Add-AttachmentFilterEntry -Name *.ext -type FileName
C.    Set-AttachmentFilterListConfig -Action Reject -RejectMessage “None”
D.    Set-AttachmentFilterListConfig -Action SilentDelete

Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Your company has five Active Directory sites that are configured as shown in the exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.)
Each site has an Exchange Server 2007 Mailbox server and Hub Transport server. Currently all outbound e-mail traffic goes through the New York site. You need to reconfigure the mail flow so that all outbound e-mail messages that are sent from users in the Seattle office are sent out of your Exchange organization through ExchHub5 in the Chicago office.
Which cmdlet should you run?
 clip_image002

A.    Set-AdsiteLink -Id DNVR-CHI -ADCost 5
B.    Set-AdSite -Identity Chicago -HubSiteEnabled:$true
C.    New-SendConnector -Name ‘Chicago’ -AddressSpaces:’smtp:*;1′ -DNSRoutingEnabled:$true -SourceTransportServers:’ExchHub5′
D.    Set-SendConnector -Identity ‘Seattle’ -AddressSpaces:’smtp:*;1′ -DNSRoutingEnabled:$false -SourceTransportServers:’ExchHub1′

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Your companys Microsoft ActiveSync policy is configured to require inactive users to provide their password every 10 minutes. A company executive requests that her mobile device be exempt from the inactivity timer. You need to exempt the executives mobile device from the timeout policy while maintaining the other corporate policy settings. What should you do?

A.    Remove the corporate ActiveSync policy from the executives mailbox.
B.    Create a new ActiveSync policy that has the required settings, and apply it to the executives mailbox.
C.    Change the password setting on the executives mobile device to override the ActiveSync policy.
D.    Reconfigure the executives mobile device for ActiveSync, and do not apply the corporate ActiveSync policy.

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You need to configure a public folder to replicate on only Saturdays and Sundays. You also need to ensure that posts will be denied after the folders size reaches 500 MB. Which cmdlet should you run for the public folder?

A.    Set-PublicFolder -StorageQuota 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
B.    Set-PublicFolder -PostStorageQuota 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
C.    Set-PublicFolder -MaxItemSize 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
D.    Set-PublicFolder -PostStorageQuota 500MB -UseDatabaseRetentionDefaults: $true

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company normally does not allow out-of-office messages to be sent to users outside of your Exchange 2007 organization. The company makes an exception for a business partner named Northwind Traders. The SMTP domain for Northwind Traders is northwindtraders.com. You need to configure your Exchange organization to allow out-of-office messages to be sent to e-mail addresses in the northwindtraders.com domain. What should you do?

A.    Add northwindtraders.com as a remote domain and set the appropriate options.
B.    Add northwindtraders.com as an accepted domain and set the appropriate options.
C.    Create a transport rule and set the appropriate options.
D.    Create a Send connector for northwindtraders.com and set the appropriate options.

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You are preparing to configure Outlook Anywhere on your existing Exchange Server 2007 organization. A Mailbox server named ExchMb1 contains all of the mailboxes that will be accessed by users who use Outlook Anywhere. A Client Access server named ExchCas1 is available from the Internet. Users will access Outlook Anywhere with mail.contoso.com as the host (A) name. You need to configure the Exchange organization so that Outlook Anywhere can be used by Microsoft Office Outlook clients from the Internet. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Install RPC over HTTP Proxy on ExchCas1.
B.    Install a valid SSL certificate for ExchMb1 on the default Web site.
C.    Install a valid SSL certificate for ExchCas1 on the default Web site.
D.    Install RPC over HTTP Proxy on ExchMb1.
E.    Run the Enable-OutlookAnywhere -Server:ExchCas1 -ExternalHostName:mail.contoso.com -SSLOffLoading:$false -ExternalAuthenticationMethod:Basic cmdlet.
F.    Run the Enable-OutlookAnywhere -Server:ExchMb1 -ExternalHostName:mail.contoso.com -SSLOffLoading:$true -ExternalAuthenticationMethod:Basic cmdlet.

Answer: ACE
Passing your CompTIA LX0-101 Exam by using the latest LX0-101 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/lx0-101.html

2014 Latest CompTIA LX0-102 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
When attempting to send a file to another user securely with GPG, which of the following actions must be done?

A.    Encrypt the file using your public key.
B.    Encrypt the file using their public key.
C.    Encrypt the file using your private key.
D.    Encrypt the file using their private key.
E.    Sign the file with your public key.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In xorg.conf, which of the following sections is concerned with fonts?

A.    The Fonts section
B.    The Files section
C.    The xfsCodes section
D.    The Graphics section
E.    The modeline section

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following outputs will the below command sequence produce? echo ‘1 2 3 4 5 6’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done

A.    result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B.    result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C.    result: 6 5 4
D.    result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E.    result: 3 2 1

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
X is running okay but an administrator is concerned that the correct color depth set is not configured. Which of the following commands will show the administrator the running color depth while in X?

A.    xcd
B.    xcdepth
C.    xwininfo
D.    xcolordepth
E.    cat /etc/X11

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following words is used to restrict the records that are returned from a SELECT query based on supplied criteria for the values in the records?

A.    LIMIT
B.    FROM
C.    WHERE
D.    IF

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following outputs will the command seq 10 produce?

A.    A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B.    The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C.    The numbers 0 though 9 with one number per line.
D.    The number 10 to standard output.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the purpose of the Sticky Keys feature in X?

A.    To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once
B.    To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down
C.    To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit
D.    To repeat the input of a single character

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands can be used to activate a specific network interface?

A.    ipup
B.    net
C.    ifup
D.    netup

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator is looking into a new script that they have just received from a senior administrator. In the very first line the administrator notices a #! followed by a path to a binary.
Linux will:

A.    ignore the script.
B.    use that binary to interpret the script.
C.    use that binary to compile the script.
D.    be replaced by that binary.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands should be used to print a listing of emails in the system’s mail queue?

A.    sendmail -l
B.    lpq
C.    mailq
D.    mlq

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Each entry in a crontab must end with which of the following characters?

A.    tab
B.    space
C.    backslash
D.    newline

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A department decided to change the Gnome Display Manager’s greeting. Which of the following configuration files should an administrator edit?

A.    /etc/gnome/greeting
B.    /opt/gnome/share/greeting
C.    /etc/X11/gmd.conf
D.    /etc/X11/gdm/Init/Default

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Select THREE).

A.    postfix
B.    procmail
C.    sendmail
D.    exim
E.    smtpd

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
On a dual boot system, every time the system is booted back into Linux the time has been set backward by two hours. Which of the following commands will correct the problem so it will not occur again?

A.    ntpdate pool.ntp.org
B.    date -d ‘two hours’
C.    hwclock –hctosys –localtime
D.    time hwclock

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following files, when using Sendmail or a similar MTA system, will allow a user to redirect all their mail to another address and is configurable by the user themselves?

A.    /etc/alias
B.    /etc/mail/forwarders
C.    ~/.alias
D.    ~/.forward

Answer: D
Passing your CompTIA LX0-102 Exam by using the latest LX0-102 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/lx0-102.html

2014 Latest CompTIA SG0-001 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
An administrator is attempting to recover corrupted data from a four disk RAID group. However, the administrator does not know which RAID level was used. When investigating the volumes, the administrator notes that there is a duplicate of all data on two of the disks. Which of the following RAID levels was in use?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 5
C.    RAID 6
D.    RAID 10

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given an array with sixteen 300GB drives, a storage administrator needs to know how much raw usable space can be made available while still maintaining a highly available RAID configuration with two hot spares. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM capacity that can be allocated and at which RAID level?

A.    2.1TB, RAID 1
B.    3.6TB, RAID 6
C.    3.9TB, RAID 5
D.    4.8TB, RAID 0

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When gathering simple baseline statistics for a storage array, a storage administrator should gather which of the following? (Select TWO).

A.    Read/Write errors
B.    Number of switches connected
C.    Reads/Writes performed
D.    Read/Write throughput
E.    Port loss of signal counts

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
A server has dual power supplies, dual mirrored hard drives, multi-pathed multiple NICs, and a dual port HBA for access into a SAN. Which of the following components is a single point of failure?

A.    Power supplies
B.    HBA
C.    NICs
D.    System hard drives

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A new storage array is being cabled into a rack. The array has dual controllers, each disk tray has dual power supplies, and there are two in-rack PDUs (C and D). Which of the following is the BEST method for hooking up power?

A.    Connect controller A’s PSUs to PDU C, controller B’s PSUs to D, alternate drive trays between PDUs C and D.
B.    Connect all drive tray PSUs to C and all controller PDUs to D.
C.    Connect both controller’s PSUs to C and all drive tray PSUs to D.
D.    Split all PSU connections between C and D equally.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An administrator needs to assign LUN IDs for two new LUNs from the same storage array. The
first LUN is being presented as LUN 0 to multiple hosts. The second LUN is being dedicated to a single server which is also included in the group of hosts LUN 0 is presented to. Which of the following is the LOWEST LUN ID that can be assigned to the second LUN?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    16

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In a direct current only datacenter, which of the following is the MOST important rack installation concern?

A.    Sufficient power capacity
B.    Adequate division of circuits
C.    Adequate humidity control
D.    Grounding of all components

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are the MOST important properties to remember when replacing a faulty SFP? (Select TWO).

A.    SFP TX power
B.    Distance rating
C.    Port speed
D.    SFP RX power
E.    Driver version

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the MOST important item a storage administrator should check FIRST for a successful fabric merge?

A.    Faulty SFPs in the switch
B.    Number of aliases in the zoning database
C.    Domain IDs
D.    Total number of ports in the combined fabric

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following protocols transmits a password in clear text on the network during the login process?

A.    SFTP
B.    SSH
C.    Telnet
D.    HTTPS

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A switch with 8Gb ports has been connected with five hosts running at 4Gb speed and two at 2Gb speed. If the switch is communicating through an ISL with another 8Gb switch where the storage array is connected, which of the following will be the oversubscription ratio of this configuration?

A.    1:1
B.    2:1
C.    3:1
D.    5:1

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator is tasked to programmatically create twenty 64GB LUNs and one 1GB LUN to be assigned to a four node cluster. Which of the following tools should be used to satisfy the request?

A.    CLI
B.    SMI-S
C.    GUI
D.    SNMP

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A senior administrator configuring a firewall would like to know the IP address of a frequently accessed website to verify that site was not accidentally blocked in the content filter by the junior administrator’s recently-added range of blocked IP addresses. Which of the following tools would be used to find the IP address of the website?

A.    ipconfig/ifconfig
B.    nslookup
C.    netstat
D.    tracert/traceroute

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A user reports lack of network connectivity on a laptop. No hardware changes have recently occurred on the laptop. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A.    Port
B.    Cable
C.    Firewall
D.    NIC configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A small business would like to install their new storage equipment in a closet off of their pool deck. Which of the following environmental concerns should a technician consider FIRST?

A.    Fire suppression
B.    Humidity control
C.    Sufficient power
D.    Rack loading

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following RAID levels provides the BEST guarantee that data will be retained in the event of drive failure without requiring a rebuild?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 1
C.    RAID 3
D.    RAID 5

Answer: B
Passing your CompTIA SG0-001 Exam by using the latest CompTIA SG0-001 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/sg0-001.html

2014 Latest Juniper JN0-643 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which command prevents Layer 2 loops if the switch stops receiving spanning-tree keepalives on port ge-1/0/1?

A.    [edit protocols rstp]
user@switch# show
interface ge-1/0/1 {
  bpdu-block;
}
B.    [edit protocols layer2-control]
user@switch# show
interface ge-1/0/1 {
  bpdu-time-out-action {
    block;
    alarm;
  }
}
C.    [edit protocols layer2-control]
user@switch# show
bpdu-block {
  interface ge-1/0/1;
}
D.    [edit protocols rstp]
interface ge-1/0/1
{
  no-root-port;
}

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001
You are attaching into an EX Series switch-1a legacy IP phone that does not support LLDP-MED, but does allow configuration using DHCP, as shown in the exhibit.
Your existing network QoS policies dictate that VoIP traffic must traverse over VLAN 10.
Which two actions put VoIP traffic onto VLAN 10? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure protocols cdp on switch-1.
B.    Manually configure the voice VLAN on the IP phone.
C.    Configure vlan 1 under forwarding-options bootp.
D.    Configure interface ge-0/0/5 under forwarding-options bootp.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
What are three types of port designation specific to Private VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    Promiscuous ports
B.    Transparent ports
C.    PVLAN trunk ports
D.    Designated ports
E.    Isolated ports

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[4]
Looking at the output in the exhibit, why is the BGP neighbor not in Established state?

A.    BGP Refresh is not supported.
B.    Multihop is not configured.
C.    The peer address is not reachable.
D.    Authentication is configured.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about MVRP on EX Series switches are true? (Choose two.)

A.    MVRP can add VLANs on access interfaces.
B.    MVRP can add VLANs on trunk interfaces.
C.    MVRP adds VLANs on MVRP-enabled interfaces by default.
D.    MVRP is in transparent mode on MVRP-enabled interfaces by default.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Your customer has five office locations.
Each office location has 20 VLANs configured, one for each department.
Your engineering team has recently secured a government contract with strict regulations which require that engineers be placed into separate workgroups.
These workgroups cannot communicate with each other.
Without changing the primary VLAN assignments, which JUNOS feature meets this requirement with minimal configuration?

A.    Create a series of firewall filters to block users in each workgroup.
B.    Configure a Private VLAN and assign each workgroup a secondary VLAN.
C.    Configure Virtual Private LAN Service to isolate broadcast domain.
D.    Turn off the default BUM (Broadcast, unknown, multicast) flooding mode.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[6]
In the exhibit, switches S1, S2, and S3 have Q-in-Q tunneling configured between Site 1 and Site 2.
Which configuration on switch S1 allows Site 1 and Site 2 to exchange Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), but blocks VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) between Site 1 and Site 2?

A.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling layer2-protocol-tunneling cdp
B.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling l2tp cdp
C.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling layer2-protocol-tunneling deny vtp
D.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling l2tp deny vtp

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A coffee shop offering free Internet service to customers wants to implement the following security policies:
1. Every customer must agree to a set of terms and conditions before accessing the Internet.
2. Log out customers that are logged in for more than one hour.
3. Log out customers that are idle for more than 5 minutes.
4. Authenticate employee desktop computers with known hardware addresses in the office of the coffee shop to access the Internet without the above restrictions.
The following configuration has been applied to the switch:
set access radius-server 172.16.14.26 port 1812
set access radius-server 172.16.14.26 secret Am@zingC00f33
set access profile dot1x authentication-order radius
set access profile dot1x radius authentication-server 172.27.14.226
What would you add to implement these policies?

A.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”
B.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”
C.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0 idle-timeout 300
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0 user-timeout 3600
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”
D.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 idle-timeout 300
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 user-timeout 3600
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[8]
In the PIM-SM network in the exhibit, all links in the topology have the same IGP metric configured.
Which link will not be on the RPT?

A.    R1-R4
B.    R3-R6
C.    R4-R5
D.    R5-R6

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[10]
In the exhibit, Site 1 is sending traffic on VLANs 100, 200, and 300.
The provider operating switch S1 must configure Q-in-Q tunneling to transport VLANs 100 and 200 to Site2.
The provider must configure switch S1 to block traffic received from site 1 on VLAN 300.
Which configuration accomplishes this goal?

A.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0;
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
  customer-vlans [ 100 200 ];
}
B.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id [100 200];
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0 {
    dot1q-tunneling {
      block-vlans 300;
    }
  }
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
C.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0;
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
  block-vlans 300;
}
D.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0 {
    dot1q-tunneling {
      customer-vlans [ 100 200 ];
    }
  }
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[12]
The four routers in the exhibit are participating in a multi-area OSPF topology.
Node B (in the upper right-hand corner) is an ASBR advertising an external route.
Node A (lower left-hand corner) receives the external route and begins to forward traffic to the ASBR.
How many hops will the packets take through this topology? (Do not count node A.)

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    5

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[14]
The phone connected to switch-1 in the exhibit cannot communicate with the rest of the network.
How do you solve this problem?

A.    Add the VLAN named voice as a member of the trunk on interface ge-0/0/12.0.
B.    Configure the voice VLAN on interface ge-0/0/6.0.
C.    Add interface ge-0/0/12.0 to the ethernet-switching-options voip hierarchy.
D.    Configure LLDP-MED for interface ge-0/0/12.0.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You are AS 6573.Which AS path regular expression matches only routes originated in your AS?

A.    “6573.*”
B.    “.*”
C.    “{“
D.    “^$”

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which protocol reachability is advertised by OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A.    IPv4
B.    IPv5
C.    IPv6
D.    ISO

Answer: AD

QUESTION 15
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image002
You are using an IBGP route reflector within your network.
Your route reflector has received the 2001:1:2::/64 prefix, but it is not advertising the prefix to its cluster members.
After examining the route reflector, you notice the output shown in the exhibit.
Which configuration statement causes the route reflector to transmit the route to its IBGP peers?

A.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 advertise-inactive
B.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 accept-remote-nexthop
C.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 multipath
D.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 include-mp-next-hop

Answer: A

Passing your Juniper JN0-643 Exam by using the latest Juniper JN0-643 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/jn0-643.html

2014 Latest Juniper JN0-533 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Your ScreenOS device does not have a static IP address. You want to be able to access it using its FQDN. How would you implement this task?

A.    Configure a domain in DNS.
B.    Configure syslog.
C.    Configure SNMP.
D.    Configure DDNS.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have just installed a new ScreenOS device in your network and you want only a select range of IP addresses to have administrative access to the device. Which choice will allow you to accomplish this?

A.    Configure a manager IP.
B.    Configure the management interface.
C.    Configure a management IP on the trust interface.
D.    Configure new system administrators.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A routing table contains an IBGP route for 192.168.0.0/24, a RIP route for 192.168.0.0/23, an OSPF route for 192.168.0.0/22, and a static route for 192.168.0.0/16. When the router receives traffic destined for 192.168.0.1, which route will the router use?

A.    the IBGP route
B.    the OSPF route
C.    the RIP route
D.    the static route

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are troubleshooting telnet traffic destined to IP address 10.10.10.1. You decide to run debug and want to set the flow filter. Which command will show only the telnet traffic going to the 10.10.10.1 address?

A.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1
ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-port 23
B.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1 dst-port 23
C.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-port 23
D.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have enabled BGP on your ScreenOS device and configured a single EBGP peer. The CLI shows that the BGP connection is transitioning between the CONNECT and ACTIVE states, but never reaching the ESTABLISHED state. What are three reasons for this behavior? (Choose three.)

A.    The peer is blocking traffic destined for TCP port 179.
B.    The peer address is not configured correctly.
C.    The enable statement has not been configured for the peer.
D.    The peer AS number is not configured correctly.
E.    BGP has not been enabled on the virtual router.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based routing table or the destination-based routing table. What should you do?

A.    Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B.    Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C.    Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D.    Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have the following BGP configuration in place to establish a session with a remote peer over your ethernet4 interface.
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp 65000
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp enable
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp neighbor remote-as 65500
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp neighbor enable
Which additional statement is necessary to establish the session?

A.    set interface protocol bgp enable
B.    set interface ethernet4 bgp enable
C.    set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp interface ethernet4
D.    set interface ethernet4 protocol bgp

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You have only one public IP address available and you must allow external access to three servers on a DMZ network. Which two NAT types would allow you to accomplish your objective? (Choose two.)

A.    MIP
B.    VIP
C.    NAT-dst
D.    NAT-src

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Your ScreenOS device is configured with multiple NAT types.
What is the order of precedence in this situation?

A.    interface-based NAT -> VIP -> MIP -> policy-based NAT
B.    VIP -> MIP -> policy-based NAT -> interface-based NAT
C.    MIP -> VIP -> interface-based NAT -> policy-based NAT
D.    MIP -> VIP -> policy-based NAT -> interface-based NAT

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You must translate a range of public IP addresses to a range of internal IP addresses. Which two mechanisms would you use to accomplish your objective? (Choose two.)

A.    MIP using masks
B.    VIP using masks
C.    policy-based NAT-dst
D.    policy-based NAT-src

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
You enter the following commands:
snoop filter ip dst-ip 1.1.1.10
snoop filter ip src-ip 2.1.1.10
What is the net result of these settings?

A.    Only packets with both a dst-ip of 1.1.1.10 and a src-ip of 2.1.1.10 will be captured
B.    Packets that have either a dst-ip of 1.1.1.10 or packets with a src-ip of 2.1.1.10 will be captured
C.    The second command will be ignored since a second filter cannot be added until the first one has been deleted
D.    The second command you entered will overwrite the first command you entered so you will only capture traffic with a src-ip of 2.1.1.10

Answer: B
Passing your Juniper JN0-533 Exam by using the latest Juniper JN0-533 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/jn0-533.html

2014 Latest Juniper JN0-360 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which OSPF LSA type is sent from the ABR to describe an ASBR that is in an area to which it is connected?

A.    Type 7
B.    Type 5
C.    Type 4
D.    Type 3

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button. You are asked to configure a new external BGP peering. You have configured BGP on R1 as shown in the exhibit, however the BGP peering remains in Active state.
Which additional configuration is required on R1 to establish the BGP peering?
 clip_image002[4]

A.    Configure the local-address.
B.    Configure the BGP type as external.
C.    Remove the local-as statement.
D.    Remove the autonomous-system statement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which OSPF adjacency state is reached when a hello packet has been sent, but bidirectional communication has not been established?

A.    Down
B.    Init
C.    2-way
D.    ExStart

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Based on the exhibit, which configuration will permit end-to-end routing through the GRE tunnel for R1?
 clip_image001[8]

A.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 12.168.1.1;
B.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 172..1.1;
C.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop 172..1.1;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
D.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop 172..2.2;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 172..1.1;

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two OSPF areas allow external routes? (Choose two.)

A.    backbone area
B.    not-so-stubby area
C.    stub area
D.    totally stubby area

Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which LSA packet types are originated only by an OSPF ABR router?

A.    Type 2 and Type 3
B.    Type 3 and Type 4
C.    Type 5 and Type 6
D.    Type 6 and Type 7

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In an OSPF environment, which two configuration parameters are used to determine which router is the DR? (Choose two.)

A.    the router with the highest priority
B.    the router with the lowest priority
C.    the router with the highest RID
D.    the router with the lowest RID

Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
You have entered the show ospf route command and see routes with a metric type of EXT2.
What does this indicate?

A.    These routes are OSPF interarea routes.
B.    These routes have been redistributed into OSPF and are using a Type 2 metric.
C.    These routes are preferred over the same routes with an EXT1 metric.
D.    These routes are OSPF intra-area routes.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You want to verify the frequency and type of SPF calculations on your Junos device.
Which command displays this information?

A.    show ospf database | match log
B.    show spf log
C.    show ospf log
D.    show ospf statistics

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency that is stuck in the ExStart state.
What would be the correct step to resolve the problem?

A.    Look for a mismatched IP subnet or mask.
B.    Determine whether the neighbor is a DR-Other.
C.    Determine whether the hello and dead intervals are the same on both sides.
D.    Review the MTU settings to ensure that they match.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are asked to redistribute routes into OSPF.
Which action accomplishes this task?

A.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy under the [edit protocols ospf area] hierarchy.
B.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
C.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import or an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
D.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are configuring OSPF on a Junos device; however, you have not configured a router ID.
What is the default behavior in this situation?

A.    If the loopback is configured with a 127/8 address, it will be used.
B.    If the loopback is not configured, it will use the interface with the highest IP address.
C.    If the loopback is configured and does not have a usable address, the IP address associated with the first hardware interface is used.
D.    If you configure a dedicated management address and include that interface in OSPF, it will be
used as the router ID.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two statements correctly describe IS-IS adjacencies? (Choose two.)

A.    Level 1 adjacencies can form in the same (intra) area only.
B.    Level 2 adjacencies are formed between (inter) areas only.
C.    Level 2 adjacencies can be established either interarea or intra-area.
D.    Level 2 adjacencies can form within the same (intra) area only.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which IS-IS PDU is used to request a retransmission of a missing link-state packet?

A.    the complete sequence number PDU
B.    the partial sequence number PDU
C.    a hello PDU with a request PDU TLV specifying the missing LSP
D.    a hello PDU with a refresh PDU TLV requesting all LSPs

Answer: B
Passing your Juniper JN0-360 Exam by using the latest Juniper JN0-360 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/jn0-360.html

2014 Latest Juniper JN0-355 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What does Junos Pulse Collaboration provide?

A.    group instant messaging services
B.    Web-based meeting services
C.    corporate file sharing services
D.    conference call services

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What does Secure Virtual Workspace (SVW) provide?

A.    a virtual desktop on a client desktop
B.    protected file storage on a remote server
C.    a protected workspace on a client virtual machine
D.    a protected workspace on the client desktop

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which platform supports the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service?

A.    MX Series
B.    SRX Series
C.    MAG Series
D.    EX Series

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What are two valid Junos Pulse Secure Access Service clustering implementations? (Choose two.)

A.    passive/passive
B.    active/passive
C.    online/offline
D.    active/active

Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
The Junos Pulse client connects to which two Juniper Networks services? (Choose two.)

A.    Junos Pulse Secure Access Service
B.    Junos Pulse Access Control Service
C.    Unified Threat Management
D.    Intrusion Detection Prevention

Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Which two server instances would be used as secondary authentication servers on the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service? (Choose two.)

A.    RADIUS server
B.    anonymous server
C.    Active Directory server
D.    certificate server

Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the functionality of the client standalone installer? (Choose two.)

A.    All Windows clients are available as standalone installers, except Host Checker.
B.    Juniper Installer Service client deployment requires administrative privileges.
C.    Juniper Installer Service client can be deployed using the automated Microsoft Systems Management
Server (SMS) service.
D.    Clients deployed using Juniper Installer Service require post-installation machine reboot.

Answer: BC
Passing your Juniper JN0-355 Exam by using the latest Juniper JN0-355 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/jn0-355.html

2014 Latest Juniper JN0-343 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, R1, R2, and R3 boot at the same time. Several minutes later, R4 boots.
After R4 has been online for 40 seconds, which router will be the OSPF designated router?
 clip_image001
A.    R1
B.    R2
C.    R3
D.    R4

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.
routing-options {
router-id 10.10.1.2;
}
policy-options {
policy-statement loadbalance {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 100.100.0.0/16 exact;
}
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}
Referring to the exhibit, you have configured a load balancing policy and the router has an equal cost path for traffic to 10.100.0.0/16.
What must you do to complete the load balancing configuration?

A.    Apply the policy as an export policy under the [edit forwarding-options] hierarchy.
B.    Apply the policy as an import policy under the [edit forwarding-options] hierarchy.
C.    Apply the policy as an export policy under the [edit routing-options forwarding-table] hierarchy.
D.    Apply the policy as an import policy under the [edit routing-options forwarding-table] hierarchy.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit button. All OSPF routers shown in the exhibit booted at the same time, and the network has stabilized. How many adjacencies does R1 have?
 clip_image001[4]
A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    3

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Click the Exhibit button. You have two routers, R1 and R2, running OSPF in area 0. Router R1 is having problems with forming and adjacency with Router R2.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct about the OSPF configuration in the Router R1 trace output?
 clip_image002
A.    Router R1 has the wrong OSPF area configured.
B.    Router R2 has the wrong OSPF area configured.
C.    Router R1 has the wrong interface configured for OSPF.
D.    Router R2 has the wrong interface configured for OSPF.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Click the Exhibit button.
user@Switch-1# run show dhcp snooping binding
DHCP Snooping Information:
MAC address IP address Lease (seconds) Type VLAN Interface
00:26:88:02:74:89 172.28.1.4 – static default ge-0/0/9.0
00:26:88:02:74:86 172.28.1.2 86113 dynamic default ge-0/0/6.0
00:26:88:02:74:87 172.28.1.3 86378 dynamic default ge-0/0/7.0
DHCP snooping is implemented on an EX Series switch. The results display a static MAC to IP binding on interface ge-0/0/9 as shown in the exhibit.
Which statement is correct?

A.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address configured for a host attached to interface ge-0/0/9.
B.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address to IP address binding in the DHCP server.
C.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address to IP address configured on the L3 interface ge-0/0/9.
D.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static address assigned using the command set interface ge-0/0/9.0 mac-allowed 00:26:88:02:74:89.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.
policy-statement load-balance {
from {
route-filter 172.24.0.0/24 exact;
route-filter 172.24.1.0/24 exact;
}
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
Referring to the exhibit, which command or set of commands completes the configuration that will load balance packets to destinations 172.24.0.0 and 172.24.0.1?

A.    Set forwarding-options load-balance
B.    Set routing-options forwarding-table export load-balance
C.    Set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 policy load-balance
D.    Set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 load-balance
E.    Set forwarding-options export policy load-balance
F.    Set forwarding-options load-balance

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.
[edit]
user@router# show routing-options
graceful-restart {
disable;
}
[edit]
user@router# show protocols bgp
graceful-restart;
group my-group {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.1.1;
neighbor 192.168.1.2;
neighbor 192.168.2.2 {
graceful-restart {
disable;
}
}
}
You have configured your router as shown in the exhibit.
Which statement is true based on the graceful restart (GR) configuration?

A.    GR has been disabled globally for all protocols including BGP.
B.    GR is enabled for all BGP neighbors.
C.    GR is enabled only for BGP neighbor 192.168.1.2.
D.    GR is not supported with BGP.

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, which interfaces will receive a packet sent to MAC address 00:05:85:7F:EB. 80 from the user with IP address 10.10.10.10?
 clip_image001[6]

A.    0/0/3 and 0/0/22
B.    0/0/9 and 0/0/23
C.    0/0/3, 0/0/9, 0/0/22, and 0/0/23
D.    0/0/1, 0/0/3, 0/0/9, 0/0/22, and 0/0/23

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are using redundant trunk groups (RTG) on your network.
Which two statements accurately describe RTG? (Choose two.)

A.    RTG interfaces pass BPDU packets.
B.    Aggregate Ethernet (AE) interfaces cannot be part of an RTG.
C.    RTG is used as an alternative to STP/RSTP.
D.    RTG connects an access switch to two aggregation switches.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which two packet types are handled solely by the RE within an EX4200? (Choose two.)

A.    OSPF hellos
B.    DHCP relay
C.    STP BPDUs
D.    IP multicast traffic

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which statement is correct regarding the VLAN factory-default configuration on an EX Series
switch?

A.    The default configuration assigns the default VLAN to use ID 0.
B.    The default configuration assigns the default VLAN to use ID 10.
C.    The default configuration assigns all switch ports to the default VLAN.
D.    The default configuration assigns the management port only to the default VLAN.

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Under which hierarchy do you configure OSPF?

A.    [edit protocols ospf]
B.    [edit routing-options]
C.    [edit routing-protocols]
D.    [edit protocols igp]

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You add a GRE tunnel to transport packets between two routers. After implementing this, you notice an increase in the number of dropped packets. While looking at packet captures, you notice that the do-not-fragment (DF) bit is set in the IP header of all the dropped packets.
What would cause this changed behavior?

A.    The GRE tunnel has a lower MTU than the physical interface.
B.    GRE tunnels do not support fragmentation.
C.    GRE tunnels do not support the DF bit.
D.    The GRE tunnel has a higher MTU than the physical interface.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three statements are correct about a Junos firewall filter? (Choose three.)

A.    It examines each packet individually.
B.    It tracks connections and allows you to specify an action to take on all packets within a flow.
C.    It requires you to configure the Junos operating system to explicitly allow traffic in both directions for each connection that you want to permit.
D.    It permits the initial connection and then automatically permits bidirectional communications for this connection.
E.    It is stateless in nature and is used by the software to control traffic passing through the device.

Answer: ACE
Passing your Juniper JN0-343 Exam by using the latest Juniper JN0-343 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/jn0-343.html

2014 Latest Juniper JN0-102 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which network mask is the equivalent of 255.255.248.0?

A.    /20
B.    /21
C.    /22
D.    /23

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which login class permission will allow a user to use the telnet utility?

A.    Network permission
B.    Maintenance permission
C.    Supervisor permission
D.    Shell permission

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which command do you issue to upgrade the current software on Junos devices?

A.    request system software replace
B.    request system software install
C.    request system software add
D.    request system software upgrade

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about terms in a policy?

A.    A single term can be applied to a protocol or interface, independent of the policy.
B.    Once configured, terms within a policy cannot be reordered.
C.    The name of a term is limited to five characters.
D.    A from statement is optional in a term.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the decimal equivalent of 10101010?

A.    182
B.    180
C.    172
D.    170

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Two devices on an Ethernet segment sent frames at the same time causing a collision.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Both devices stop transmitting, wait a random period of time, verify the wire is idle, and re- transmit.
B.    The device with the lowest MAC address is permitted to retransmit first.
C.    The device with the lowest MAC address sends a jam signal to notify all other devices of the collision.
D.    Both devices send a jam signal to notify all other devices of the collision.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
You issue the command telnet interface ge-1/1/0 10.10.10.1 source 192.168.100.1 bypass-routing.
Which statement is correct?

A.    The bypass-routing parameter is ignored when using private IP addressing.
B.    The telnet session will have the source IP address 10.10.10.1.
C.    The telnet session will connect to the neighboring device’s interface ge-1/1/0.
D.    Return traffic for the telnet session might not arrive at interface ge-1/1/0.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding the Junos OS?

A.    Each process runs in its own protected memory space ensuring that one process cannot directly interfere with another.
B.    Processes share memory space but use separate ASICs so that one process cannot directly interfere with another.
C.    A central processor called the IP2 Chip dynamically assigns memory as process needs fluctuate.
D.    The memory management daemon (mmd) is responsible for allocating new memory for processes as they request it.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two statements apply when a user has entered private configuration mode by typing configure private? (Choose two.)

A.    All users have their own active configuration.
B.    All users have their own private candidate configuration.
C.    When a user commits, all nonconflicting changes made by all users are committed.
D.    When a user commits, only the user’s own changes are committed.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What is the default SNMP permission level on Junos devices?

A.    read
B.    read-write
C.    read-only
D.    write

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true of a network mask? (Choose two.)

A.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that is in a binary format.
B.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that is in a decimal format.
C.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that represents a network prefix.
D.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that represents network hosts.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true regarding the Junos OS?

A.    The Junos kernel is based on the Solaris operating system.
B.    The Junos kernel is based on the GNU Zebra operating system.
C.    The Junos kernel is completely original and not based on any other operating system.
D.    The Junos kernel is based on the FreeBSD UNIX operating system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How can you verify that you have correctly configured SSH access to your Junos device?

A.    user@router# show system services
B.    user@router> show configuration services
C.    user@router# show configuration system services
D.    user@router# show system login

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which statement is true regarding the password-recovery process?

A.    You must have a console connection.
B.    You cannot set the console port to an insecure mode.
C.    You must press the Enter key so that you can boot into single-user mode.
D.    When prompted to enter the full pathname of the shell, you must press the Enter key.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are at the top of the hierarchy and must configure OSPF on interface so-0/0/0 unit 100.
Which two achieve this result? (Choose two.)

A.    set protocols
set ospf area 0
set interface so-0/0/0.100
B.    set protocols ospf area 0 interface so-0/0/0.100
C.    edit protocols ospf interface so-0/0/0.100
D.    edit protocols ospf area 0
set interface so-0/0/0.100

Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which statement describes an advantage of dynamic routing?

A.    Dynamic routing provides redundant IP addresses for end-user devices, unlike static routing.
B.    Dynamic routing requires no initial user configuration, unlike static routing.
C.    Dynamic routing provides DNS services along with IP connectivity; static routing does not.
D.    Dynamic routing typically requires less time to implement than static routing in a large network.

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which statement is true about the forwarding plane?

A.    It uses ASICs for increased performance.
B.    It is the intelligence of the platform.
C.    It maintains the routing tables.
D.    It is based on an x86 architecture.

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two can be used to create and apply an export policy that advertises static routes to RIP neighbors? (Choose two.)

A.    set protocols rip export demo
B.    edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static
set term 1 then accept
C.    edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static accept
D.    set protocols rip group internal export demo

Answer: BD
Passing your Juniper JN0-102 Exam by using the latest Juniper JN0-102 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/jn0-102.html

2014 Latest EXIN EX0-116 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?

A.    NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server
B.    NAS uses the file system of the client computers.
C.    The NAS operating system does not provide security features.
D.    With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is OpenID used for?

A.    to connect to multiple web-sites without using a password
B.    to identify yourself in dealing on-line with government agencies
C.    to pay on-line via your own bank account
D.    to use one account to sign in to multiple web sites

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?

A.    by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B.    by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C.    by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D.    by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?

A.    because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B.    because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C.    because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D.    because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is an example of the use of location information?

A.    to determine the user’s native language
B.    to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform
C.    to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS
D.    to provide the correct version of the application for the user’s operating system

Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Failover is the capacity to switch, often automatically, to another system or resource in the event of a failure. How does failover assist in the provision of cloud services?

A.    It assists providers in ensuring continuity of service when there is a problem.
B.    It automatically restarts the system in case of a failure.
C.    It builds a back-up while the system is active.
D.    It provides hidden storage to be used when needed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Why does a VPN offer more mobility to employees?

A.    It allows employees to work from locations other than their office.
B.    It offers more security at home than at the office.
C.    It offers a higher network speed at home than at the office.
D.    It does not require a network connection.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How might moving to the Cloud have a negative impact on users?

A.    Development is no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
B.    Software licensing is no longer part of operations.
C.    Support and maintenance are no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
D.    Uptimes can be guaranteed but not adjusted in a flexible manner.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is not a staffing benefit of Cloud computing?

A.    Fewer IT-staff
B.    Lower employee benefits
C.    Lower recruitment costs
D.    Lower self-service costs

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which process is an external process for a Cloud data center?

A.    Availability management
B.    Capacity management
C.    Service continuity management
D.    Service level management

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is meant by Virtualization?

A.    Virtualization means that data does not exist anywhere.
B.    Virtualization is a method to combine more computing power onto one server.
C.    Virtualization is a method to combine multiple computer environments onto one server.
D.    Virtualization means that no real computer system is needed to distribute cloud solutions.

Answer: C
Passing your EXIN EX0-001 Exam by using the latest EXIN EX0-001 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/ex0-116.html

2014 Latest EXIN EX0-002 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT part of quality planning?

A.    Define quality responsibilities
B.    Gain acceptance of the project product
C.    Agree acceptance criteria
D.    Set quality tolerances

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which should be provided by a project mandate?

A.    Terms of reference
B.    Detailed Business Case
C.    Stage tolerances
D.    Initiation Stage Plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process?

A.    Identify who will be responsible for creating the Project Plan
B.    Agree how the project will be monitored and controlled after initiation
C.    Authorize the Project Manager to proceed with the initiation stage
D.    Agree how issues and changes will be identified, assessed and controlled

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which should be funded by a change budget?

A.    Increase in agreed scope
B.    Initiation stage
C.    Change Authority
D.    Handover activities

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes a use of a Configuration Item Record?

A.    Define the identification scheme to be applied to the project
B.    Identify the techniques and procedures required within the Work Package
C.    Record the change in a product’s status
D.    Record the reporting requirements for the Work Package

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which characteristic distinguishes a project from regular business operations?

A.    Produces benefits
B.    Introduces business change
C.    Manages stakeholders
D.    Incurs cost

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What process aims to ensure accurate progress information is provided to the Project Manager?

A.    Starting up a Project
B.    Managing a Stage Boundary
C.    Managing Product Delivery
D.    Directing a Project

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Where should an off-specification be recorded?

A.    Risk Register
B.    Issue Register
C.    Work Package
D.    Configuration Management Strategy

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
During the Managing a Stage Boundary process what product is updated with estimated costs and time for the stage that is about to begin?

A.    End Stage Report
B.    Team Plan
C.    Work Package
D.    Project Plan

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?

A.    Provides a defined structure of accountability, delegation, authority and communication
B.    Includes techniques for critical path analysis and earned value analysis
C.    Enables a Project Manager to be accountable for the success of a project
D.    Prevents any changes once the scope of a project has been agreed

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which statement is FALSE?

A.    A project outcome perceived to be negative by one or more stakeholders is a dis-benefit
B.    A project’s output is any of the project’s specialist products
C.    A project benefit is only realized after the project has closed
D.    A project outcome is the result of the change derived from using the project’s outputs

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which is a responsibility of the managing level within the project management team?

A.    Set project tolerances
B.    Approve stage completion
C.    Ensure that the products are produced within the constraints agreed with the Project Board
D.    Appoint the project management team

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about stakeholders are true?
1. Someone who thinks they will be affected by a project is a stakeholder on that project
2. Stakeholders may be internal or external to the corporate organization

A.    Only 1 is true
B.    Only 2 is true
C.    Both 1 and 2 are true
D.    Neither 1 or 2 are true

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which is a purpose of quality planning?

A.    Define the structure of the project management team
B.    Detail the acceptance criteria, in order for the Project Board to agree the level of quality expected of the project’s product
C.    Document approval records for those project products that have met their quality criteria
D.    Produce the Project Plan with resource and schedule information

Answer: B
Passing your EXIN EX0-002 Exam by using the latest EXIN EX0-002 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/ex0-002.html

2014 Latest EXIN EX0-001 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

A.    Incident and financial management
B.    Change and release and deployment management
C.    Incident and event management
D.    Knowledge and service level management

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

A.    Change proposal
B.    Change policy
C.    Service request
D.    Risk register

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
(1) Local service desk
(2) Virtual service desk
(3) IT help desk
(4) Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
(1) To automatically detect service-affecting events
(2) To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
(3) To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

A.    1 and 2 only
B.    2 and 3 only
C.    1 and 3 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A.    Technical management
B.    Emergency change advisory board
C.    Urgent change board
D.    Urgent change authority

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

A.    To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B.    To provide training and certification in project management
C.    To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D.    To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
(1) Those planned to be delivered
(2) Those being delivered
(3) Those that have been withdrawn from service

A.    1 and 3 only
B.    All of the above
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 3 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The BEST description of an incident is:

A.    An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.    An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C.    Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.    Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

A.    Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B.    Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C.    Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D.    What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
When can a known error record be raised?
(1) At any time it would be useful to do so
(2) After a workaround has been found

A.    2 only
B.    1 only
C.    Neither of the above
D.    Both of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

A.    The change authorization board
B.    The change advisory board
C.    The change implementer
D.    The change manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A.    Continual service improvement
B.    Change management
C.    Service level management
D.    Availability management

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A.    The value of a service
B.    Governance
C.    Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D.    Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

A.    Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B.    Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C.    Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D.    Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A.    Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B.    Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C.    Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D.    Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Answer: B
Passing your EXIN EX0-001 Exam by using the latest EXIN EX0-001 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/ex0-001.html

2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-147 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What can you do with the DBMS_LOB package?

A.    Use the DBMS_LOB.WRITE procedure to write data to a BFILE.
B.    Use the DBMS_LOB.BFILENAME function to locate an external BFILE.
C.    Use the DBMS_LOB.FILEEXISTS function to find the location of a BFILE.
D.    Use the DBMS_LOB.FILECLOSE procedure to close the file being accessed.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Examine this procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE ADD_PLAYER (V_ID IN NUMBER, V_LAST_NAME VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER (ID,LAST_NAME) VALUES (V_ID, V_LAST_NAME);
COMMIT;
END;
This procedure must invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure and pass a parameter. Which statement, when added to the above procedure, will successfully invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure?

A.    EXECUTE UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
B.    UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
C.    RUN UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
D.    START UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three describe a stored procedure? (Choose three.)

A.    A stored procedure is typically written in SQL.
B.    By default, a stored procedure executes with the privileges of its owner.
C.    A stored procedure has three parts: the specification, the body, and the exception handler part .
D.    A stored procedure is stored in the database and can be shared by a number of programs.
E.    A stored procedure offers some advantages over a standalone SQL statement, such as programmable functionality and compiled code.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
Examine this procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID in NUMBER, V_CITY in VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ‘AUSTIN’, V_NAME in VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO TEAM (id, city, name) VALUES (v_id, v_city, v_name);
COMMIT;
END;
Which two statements will successfully invoke this procedure in SQL*Plus? (Choose two.)

A.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM;
B.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3, V_NAME=>’LONGHORNS’, V_CITY=>’AUSTIN’);
C.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3,’AUSTIN’,’LONGHORNS’);
D.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID := 3, V_NAME := ‘LONGHORNS’, V_CITY := ‘AUSTIN’);
E.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (3,’LONGHORNS’);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
You need to create a DML trigger. Which five pieces need to be identified? (Choose five.)

A.    table
B.    DML event
C.    trigger body
D.    package body
E.    package name
F.    trigger name
G.    system event
H.    trigger timing

Answer: ABCFH

QUESTION 6
This statement fails when executed: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER CALC_TEAM_AVG AFTER INSERT ON PLAYER BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER_BAT_STAT (PLAYER_ID, SEASON_YEAR,AT_BATS,HITS) VALUES (:NEW.ID, 1997, 0,0); END; To which type must you convert the trigger to correct the error?

A.    row
B.    statement
C.    ORACLE FORM trigger
D.    before

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The add_player , upd_player_stat , and upd_pitcher_stat procedures are grouped together in a package. A variable must be shared among only these procedures. Where should you declare this variable?

A.    in the package body
B.    in a database trigger
C.    in the package specification
D.    in each procedure’s DECLARE section, using the exact same name in each

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Examine this package:
  clip_image001[12]
Which statement is true?

A.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE always remains 0.00 in a session.
B.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 each time the package is invoked in a session.
C.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 1.00 each time the procedure DISPLAY_PRICE is invoked.
D.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 when the package is invoked for the first time in a session.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Examine this code:
 clip_image001[14]
Which statement is true?

A.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:06am for Smith.
B.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:06am for Jones.
C.    g_comm has a value of 20 at 9:06am for both Jones and Smith.
D.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:03am for both Jones and Smith.
E.    g_comm has a value of 10 at 9:06am for both Jones and Smith.
F.    g_comm has a value of 10 at 9:03 for both Jones and Smith.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Examine this code:
 clip_image001[16]
Which statement removes the function?

A.    DROP gen_email_name;
B.    REMOVE gen_email_name;
C.    DELETE gen_email_name;
D.    TRUNCATE gen_email_name;
E.    DROP FUNCTION gen_email_name;
F.    ALTER FUNCTION gen_email_name REMOVE;

Answer: E
Passing your Oracle 1Z0-147 Exam by using the latest Oracle 1Z0-147 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1z0-147.html

Pages: 1 2 ... 332 333 334 335 336 ... 352 353