2014 Latest Juniper JN0-102 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which network mask is the equivalent of 255.255.248.0?

A.    /20
B.    /21
C.    /22
D.    /23

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which login class permission will allow a user to use the telnet utility?

A.    Network permission
B.    Maintenance permission
C.    Supervisor permission
D.    Shell permission

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which command do you issue to upgrade the current software on Junos devices?

A.    request system software replace
B.    request system software install
C.    request system software add
D.    request system software upgrade

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about terms in a policy?

A.    A single term can be applied to a protocol or interface, independent of the policy.
B.    Once configured, terms within a policy cannot be reordered.
C.    The name of a term is limited to five characters.
D.    A from statement is optional in a term.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the decimal equivalent of 10101010?

A.    182
B.    180
C.    172
D.    170

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Two devices on an Ethernet segment sent frames at the same time causing a collision.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Both devices stop transmitting, wait a random period of time, verify the wire is idle, and re- transmit.
B.    The device with the lowest MAC address is permitted to retransmit first.
C.    The device with the lowest MAC address sends a jam signal to notify all other devices of the collision.
D.    Both devices send a jam signal to notify all other devices of the collision.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
You issue the command telnet interface ge-1/1/0 10.10.10.1 source 192.168.100.1 bypass-routing.
Which statement is correct?

A.    The bypass-routing parameter is ignored when using private IP addressing.
B.    The telnet session will have the source IP address 10.10.10.1.
C.    The telnet session will connect to the neighboring device’s interface ge-1/1/0.
D.    Return traffic for the telnet session might not arrive at interface ge-1/1/0.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding the Junos OS?

A.    Each process runs in its own protected memory space ensuring that one process cannot directly interfere with another.
B.    Processes share memory space but use separate ASICs so that one process cannot directly interfere with another.
C.    A central processor called the IP2 Chip dynamically assigns memory as process needs fluctuate.
D.    The memory management daemon (mmd) is responsible for allocating new memory for processes as they request it.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two statements apply when a user has entered private configuration mode by typing configure private? (Choose two.)

A.    All users have their own active configuration.
B.    All users have their own private candidate configuration.
C.    When a user commits, all nonconflicting changes made by all users are committed.
D.    When a user commits, only the user’s own changes are committed.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What is the default SNMP permission level on Junos devices?

A.    read
B.    read-write
C.    read-only
D.    write

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true of a network mask? (Choose two.)

A.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that is in a binary format.
B.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that is in a decimal format.
C.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that represents a network prefix.
D.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that represents network hosts.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true regarding the Junos OS?

A.    The Junos kernel is based on the Solaris operating system.
B.    The Junos kernel is based on the GNU Zebra operating system.
C.    The Junos kernel is completely original and not based on any other operating system.
D.    The Junos kernel is based on the FreeBSD UNIX operating system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How can you verify that you have correctly configured SSH access to your Junos device?

A.    user@router# show system services
B.    user@router> show configuration services
C.    user@router# show configuration system services
D.    user@router# show system login

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which statement is true regarding the password-recovery process?

A.    You must have a console connection.
B.    You cannot set the console port to an insecure mode.
C.    You must press the Enter key so that you can boot into single-user mode.
D.    When prompted to enter the full pathname of the shell, you must press the Enter key.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are at the top of the hierarchy and must configure OSPF on interface so-0/0/0 unit 100.
Which two achieve this result? (Choose two.)

A.    set protocols
set ospf area 0
set interface so-0/0/0.100
B.    set protocols ospf area 0 interface so-0/0/0.100
C.    edit protocols ospf interface so-0/0/0.100
D.    edit protocols ospf area 0
set interface so-0/0/0.100

Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which statement describes an advantage of dynamic routing?

A.    Dynamic routing provides redundant IP addresses for end-user devices, unlike static routing.
B.    Dynamic routing requires no initial user configuration, unlike static routing.
C.    Dynamic routing provides DNS services along with IP connectivity; static routing does not.
D.    Dynamic routing typically requires less time to implement than static routing in a large network.

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which statement is true about the forwarding plane?

A.    It uses ASICs for increased performance.
B.    It is the intelligence of the platform.
C.    It maintains the routing tables.
D.    It is based on an x86 architecture.

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two can be used to create and apply an export policy that advertises static routes to RIP neighbors? (Choose two.)

A.    set protocols rip export demo
B.    edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static
set term 1 then accept
C.    edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static accept
D.    set protocols rip group internal export demo

Answer: BD
Passing your Juniper JN0-102 Exam by using the latest Juniper JN0-102 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/jn0-102.html

2014 Latest EXIN EX0-116 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?

A.    NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server
B.    NAS uses the file system of the client computers.
C.    The NAS operating system does not provide security features.
D.    With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is OpenID used for?

A.    to connect to multiple web-sites without using a password
B.    to identify yourself in dealing on-line with government agencies
C.    to pay on-line via your own bank account
D.    to use one account to sign in to multiple web sites

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?

A.    by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B.    by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C.    by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D.    by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?

A.    because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B.    because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C.    because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D.    because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is an example of the use of location information?

A.    to determine the user’s native language
B.    to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform
C.    to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS
D.    to provide the correct version of the application for the user’s operating system

Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Failover is the capacity to switch, often automatically, to another system or resource in the event of a failure. How does failover assist in the provision of cloud services?

A.    It assists providers in ensuring continuity of service when there is a problem.
B.    It automatically restarts the system in case of a failure.
C.    It builds a back-up while the system is active.
D.    It provides hidden storage to be used when needed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Why does a VPN offer more mobility to employees?

A.    It allows employees to work from locations other than their office.
B.    It offers more security at home than at the office.
C.    It offers a higher network speed at home than at the office.
D.    It does not require a network connection.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How might moving to the Cloud have a negative impact on users?

A.    Development is no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
B.    Software licensing is no longer part of operations.
C.    Support and maintenance are no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
D.    Uptimes can be guaranteed but not adjusted in a flexible manner.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is not a staffing benefit of Cloud computing?

A.    Fewer IT-staff
B.    Lower employee benefits
C.    Lower recruitment costs
D.    Lower self-service costs

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which process is an external process for a Cloud data center?

A.    Availability management
B.    Capacity management
C.    Service continuity management
D.    Service level management

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is meant by Virtualization?

A.    Virtualization means that data does not exist anywhere.
B.    Virtualization is a method to combine more computing power onto one server.
C.    Virtualization is a method to combine multiple computer environments onto one server.
D.    Virtualization means that no real computer system is needed to distribute cloud solutions.

Answer: C
Passing your EXIN EX0-001 Exam by using the latest EXIN EX0-001 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/ex0-116.html

2014 Latest EXIN EX0-002 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT part of quality planning?

A.    Define quality responsibilities
B.    Gain acceptance of the project product
C.    Agree acceptance criteria
D.    Set quality tolerances

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which should be provided by a project mandate?

A.    Terms of reference
B.    Detailed Business Case
C.    Stage tolerances
D.    Initiation Stage Plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process?

A.    Identify who will be responsible for creating the Project Plan
B.    Agree how the project will be monitored and controlled after initiation
C.    Authorize the Project Manager to proceed with the initiation stage
D.    Agree how issues and changes will be identified, assessed and controlled

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which should be funded by a change budget?

A.    Increase in agreed scope
B.    Initiation stage
C.    Change Authority
D.    Handover activities

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes a use of a Configuration Item Record?

A.    Define the identification scheme to be applied to the project
B.    Identify the techniques and procedures required within the Work Package
C.    Record the change in a product’s status
D.    Record the reporting requirements for the Work Package

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which characteristic distinguishes a project from regular business operations?

A.    Produces benefits
B.    Introduces business change
C.    Manages stakeholders
D.    Incurs cost

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What process aims to ensure accurate progress information is provided to the Project Manager?

A.    Starting up a Project
B.    Managing a Stage Boundary
C.    Managing Product Delivery
D.    Directing a Project

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Where should an off-specification be recorded?

A.    Risk Register
B.    Issue Register
C.    Work Package
D.    Configuration Management Strategy

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
During the Managing a Stage Boundary process what product is updated with estimated costs and time for the stage that is about to begin?

A.    End Stage Report
B.    Team Plan
C.    Work Package
D.    Project Plan

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?

A.    Provides a defined structure of accountability, delegation, authority and communication
B.    Includes techniques for critical path analysis and earned value analysis
C.    Enables a Project Manager to be accountable for the success of a project
D.    Prevents any changes once the scope of a project has been agreed

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which statement is FALSE?

A.    A project outcome perceived to be negative by one or more stakeholders is a dis-benefit
B.    A project’s output is any of the project’s specialist products
C.    A project benefit is only realized after the project has closed
D.    A project outcome is the result of the change derived from using the project’s outputs

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which is a responsibility of the managing level within the project management team?

A.    Set project tolerances
B.    Approve stage completion
C.    Ensure that the products are produced within the constraints agreed with the Project Board
D.    Appoint the project management team

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about stakeholders are true?
1. Someone who thinks they will be affected by a project is a stakeholder on that project
2. Stakeholders may be internal or external to the corporate organization

A.    Only 1 is true
B.    Only 2 is true
C.    Both 1 and 2 are true
D.    Neither 1 or 2 are true

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which is a purpose of quality planning?

A.    Define the structure of the project management team
B.    Detail the acceptance criteria, in order for the Project Board to agree the level of quality expected of the project’s product
C.    Document approval records for those project products that have met their quality criteria
D.    Produce the Project Plan with resource and schedule information

Answer: B
Passing your EXIN EX0-002 Exam by using the latest EXIN EX0-002 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/ex0-002.html

2014 Latest EXIN EX0-001 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

A.    Incident and financial management
B.    Change and release and deployment management
C.    Incident and event management
D.    Knowledge and service level management

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

A.    Change proposal
B.    Change policy
C.    Service request
D.    Risk register

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
(1) Local service desk
(2) Virtual service desk
(3) IT help desk
(4) Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
(1) To automatically detect service-affecting events
(2) To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
(3) To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

A.    1 and 2 only
B.    2 and 3 only
C.    1 and 3 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A.    Technical management
B.    Emergency change advisory board
C.    Urgent change board
D.    Urgent change authority

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

A.    To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B.    To provide training and certification in project management
C.    To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D.    To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
(1) Those planned to be delivered
(2) Those being delivered
(3) Those that have been withdrawn from service

A.    1 and 3 only
B.    All of the above
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 3 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The BEST description of an incident is:

A.    An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.    An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C.    Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.    Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

A.    Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B.    Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C.    Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D.    What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
When can a known error record be raised?
(1) At any time it would be useful to do so
(2) After a workaround has been found

A.    2 only
B.    1 only
C.    Neither of the above
D.    Both of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

A.    The change authorization board
B.    The change advisory board
C.    The change implementer
D.    The change manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A.    Continual service improvement
B.    Change management
C.    Service level management
D.    Availability management

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A.    The value of a service
B.    Governance
C.    Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D.    Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

A.    Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B.    Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C.    Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D.    Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A.    Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B.    Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C.    Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D.    Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Answer: B
Passing your EXIN EX0-001 Exam by using the latest EXIN EX0-001 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/ex0-001.html

2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-147 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What can you do with the DBMS_LOB package?

A.    Use the DBMS_LOB.WRITE procedure to write data to a BFILE.
B.    Use the DBMS_LOB.BFILENAME function to locate an external BFILE.
C.    Use the DBMS_LOB.FILEEXISTS function to find the location of a BFILE.
D.    Use the DBMS_LOB.FILECLOSE procedure to close the file being accessed.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Examine this procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE ADD_PLAYER (V_ID IN NUMBER, V_LAST_NAME VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER (ID,LAST_NAME) VALUES (V_ID, V_LAST_NAME);
COMMIT;
END;
This procedure must invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure and pass a parameter. Which statement, when added to the above procedure, will successfully invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure?

A.    EXECUTE UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
B.    UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
C.    RUN UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
D.    START UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three describe a stored procedure? (Choose three.)

A.    A stored procedure is typically written in SQL.
B.    By default, a stored procedure executes with the privileges of its owner.
C.    A stored procedure has three parts: the specification, the body, and the exception handler part .
D.    A stored procedure is stored in the database and can be shared by a number of programs.
E.    A stored procedure offers some advantages over a standalone SQL statement, such as programmable functionality and compiled code.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
Examine this procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID in NUMBER, V_CITY in VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ‘AUSTIN’, V_NAME in VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO TEAM (id, city, name) VALUES (v_id, v_city, v_name);
COMMIT;
END;
Which two statements will successfully invoke this procedure in SQL*Plus? (Choose two.)

A.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM;
B.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3, V_NAME=>’LONGHORNS’, V_CITY=>’AUSTIN’);
C.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3,’AUSTIN’,’LONGHORNS’);
D.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID := 3, V_NAME := ‘LONGHORNS’, V_CITY := ‘AUSTIN’);
E.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (3,’LONGHORNS’);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
You need to create a DML trigger. Which five pieces need to be identified? (Choose five.)

A.    table
B.    DML event
C.    trigger body
D.    package body
E.    package name
F.    trigger name
G.    system event
H.    trigger timing

Answer: ABCFH

QUESTION 6
This statement fails when executed: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER CALC_TEAM_AVG AFTER INSERT ON PLAYER BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER_BAT_STAT (PLAYER_ID, SEASON_YEAR,AT_BATS,HITS) VALUES (:NEW.ID, 1997, 0,0); END; To which type must you convert the trigger to correct the error?

A.    row
B.    statement
C.    ORACLE FORM trigger
D.    before

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The add_player , upd_player_stat , and upd_pitcher_stat procedures are grouped together in a package. A variable must be shared among only these procedures. Where should you declare this variable?

A.    in the package body
B.    in a database trigger
C.    in the package specification
D.    in each procedure’s DECLARE section, using the exact same name in each

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Examine this package:
  clip_image001[12]
Which statement is true?

A.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE always remains 0.00 in a session.
B.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 each time the package is invoked in a session.
C.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 1.00 each time the procedure DISPLAY_PRICE is invoked.
D.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 when the package is invoked for the first time in a session.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Examine this code:
 clip_image001[14]
Which statement is true?

A.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:06am for Smith.
B.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:06am for Jones.
C.    g_comm has a value of 20 at 9:06am for both Jones and Smith.
D.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:03am for both Jones and Smith.
E.    g_comm has a value of 10 at 9:06am for both Jones and Smith.
F.    g_comm has a value of 10 at 9:03 for both Jones and Smith.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Examine this code:
 clip_image001[16]
Which statement removes the function?

A.    DROP gen_email_name;
B.    REMOVE gen_email_name;
C.    DELETE gen_email_name;
D.    TRUNCATE gen_email_name;
E.    DROP FUNCTION gen_email_name;
F.    ALTER FUNCTION gen_email_name REMOVE;

Answer: E
Passing your Oracle 1Z0-147 Exam by using the latest Oracle 1Z0-147 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1z0-147.html

2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-062 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPE VALUE
————————– ——————————- —————————
undo_management string AUTO
undo_retentioninteger 12 00
undo_tablespace string UNDOTBS1
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?

A.    Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B.    Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of space in the undo tablespace.
C.    You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D.    An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to ensure the following:
1. The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.
2. Data read per session must be limited for the user.
3. The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off automatically.
How would you accomplish this?

A.    by granting a secure application role to the user
B.    by implementing Database Resource Manager
C.    by using Oracle Label Security options
D.    by assigning a profile to the user

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT’s password is TIGER. The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database. Which command would you execute to create the database link?

A.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING ‘HQ’;
B.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CXJRRENT_USER USING HQ’ S
C.    CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
D.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A.    The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B.    The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C.    The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D.    The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following specifications:
– Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.
– The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
– The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.
Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A.    a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation
B.    a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C.    a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D.    a default database configuration

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database?

A.    An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B.    An extent can span multiple segments,
C.    Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D.    It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E.    A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database structures?

A.    A segment cannot span data files.
B.    A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C.    An extent cannot span data files.
D.    The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

A.    It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B.    It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C.    It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D.    It writes when a user commits a transaction.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes. Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?

A.    connecting by using an external naming method
B.    connecting by using the easy connect method
C.    creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming service”
D.    connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E.    connecting by using a directory naming method

Answer: CE

QUESTION 10
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table?

A.    partitioning the table
B.    creating an invisible index
C.    updating the table by using an update statement
D.    creating a public synonym
E.    creating a view

Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about a job chain?

A.    It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B.    It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C.    It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D.    It cannot have more than one dependency.
E.    It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12
The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management (ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it. Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?

A.    Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B.    Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C.    Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D.    Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user to the new tablespace
E.    Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value

Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which three factors influence the optimizer’s choice of an execution plan?

A.    the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B.    operating system (OS) statistics
C.    cardinality estimates
D.    object statistics in the data dictionary
E.    fixed baselines

Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.
SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length,
Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits, cpu_wait_time
FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAMEACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS
CPU_WAIT_TIME
———————————– ——————– ——————– ——————— —————-
OLTP__ORDER__ENTRY1029690 467
OTHES__GROUPS 0 059823664089
60425
SYS_GROUP 1 02420704 914
19540
DS.S_QUERIES4245946603004
55700
Which two statements are true?

A.    An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B.    An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C.    The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.
D.    The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E.    A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 15
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A.    The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B.    All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C.    The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D.    The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Answer: C
Passing your Oracle 1Z0-062 Exam by using the latest Oracle 1Z0-062 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1z0-062.html

2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-061 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:
1) You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?

A.    DATE
B.    NUMBER
C.    TIMESTAMP
D.    INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E.    INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?

A.    Displaying a date in a nondefault format
B.    Finding the number of characters in an expression
C.    Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string
D.    Combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the employees table:
 clip_image002[8]
You want to display all the employee names and their corresponding manager names.
Evaluate the following query:
 
Which join option can be used in the blank in the above query to get the required output?

A.    INNER JOIN
B.    FULL OUTER JOIN
C.    LEFT OUTER JOIN
D.    RIGHT OUTER JOIN

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
YOU need to display the date ll-oct-2007 in words as `Eleventh of October, Two Thousand Seven’.
Which SQL statement would give the required result?
 clip_image002[10]

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Examine the data in the ORD_ITEMS table:
 clip_image001[6]
Evaluate the following query:
 clip_image001[8]
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?

A.    It gives an error because the having clause should be specified after the group by clause.
B.    It gives an error because all the aggregate functions used in the having clause must be specified
in the select list.
C.    It displays the item nos with their average quantity where the average quantity is more than double
the minimum quantity of that item in the table.
D.    It displays the item nos with their average quantity where the average quantity is more than double
the overall minimum quantity of all the items in the table.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding subqueries?

A.    A subquery can retrieve zero or more rows.
B.    Only two subqueries can be placed at one level.
C.    A subquery can be used only in SQL query statements.
D.    A subquery can appear on either side of a comparison operator.
E.    There is no limit on the number of subquery levels in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
Using a Subquery to Solve a Problem
Suppose you want to write a query to find out who earns a salary greater than Abel’s salary.
To solve this problem, you need two queries: one to find how much Abel earns, and a second query to find who earns more than that amount. You can solve this problem by combining the two queries, placing one query inside the other query. The inner query (or subquery) returns a value that is used by the outer query (or main query).
Using a subquery is equivalent to performing two sequential queries and using the result of the first query as the search value in the second query.
Subquery Syntax
A subquery is a SELECT statement that is embedded in the clause of another SELECT statement. You can build powerful statements out of simple ones by using subqueries. They can be very useful when you need to select rows from a table with a condition that depends on the data in the table itself.
You can place the subquery in a number of SQL clauses, including the following:
WHERE clause
HAVING clause
FROM clause
In the syntax:
operator includes a comparison condition such as >, =, or IN Note: Comparison conditions fall into two classes: single-row operators (>, =, >=, <, <>, <=) and multiple-row operators (IN, ANY, ALL, EXISTS). The subquery is often referred to as a nested SELECT, sub-SELECT, or inner SELECT statement. The subquery generally executes first, and its output is used to complete the query condition for the main (or outer) query.
Guidelines for Using Subqueries
Enclose subqueries in parentheses. Place subqueries on the right side of the comparison condition for readability. (However, the subquery can appear on either side of the comparison operator.) Use single-row operators with single-row subqueries and multiple- row operators with multiple-row subqueries.
Subqueries can be nested to an unlimited depth in a FROM clause but to “only” 255 levels in a WHERE clause. They can be used in the SELECT list and in the FROM, WHERE, and HAVING clauses of a query.

QUESTION 7
Examine the structure of the products table:
 clip_image001[10]
You want to display the names of the products that have the highest total value for UNIT_PRICE * QTY_IN_HAND.
Which SQL statement gives the required output?
 clip_image002[12]

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: A

Passing your Oracle 1Z0-061 Exam by using the latest Oracle 1Z0-061 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1z0-061.html

2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-060 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle database significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?

A.    Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B.    Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C.    Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic
Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D.    Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E.    Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.

Answer: C
Explanation:
*In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a performance problem.
*Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference:Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

QUESTION 2
You plan to use the In Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.
Which three storage options support the use of HCC?

A.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.
B.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNS on any Storage Area Network array
C.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero padded NFS-mounted files
D.    Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.
E.    Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
F.    Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
G.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays

Answer: AEG
Explanation:
HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage ?Exadata(A), Pillar Axiom(G)or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA).
Note:
*Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to supportPillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above
*Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, betterperformance than traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.
QUESTION 3
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about performance degradation.
How does real-time Automatic database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and provide solutions?

A.    It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B.    It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C.    It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D.    It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Note:
*The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases (PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
*The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to an Oracle “instance” (an instance is your database programs and RAM). *The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control information for a single process.

QUESTION 4
The tnsnames.ora file has an entry for the service alias ORCL as follows:
  clip_image002[4]
The TNS ping command executes successfully when tested with ORCL; however, from the same OS user session, you are not able to connect to the database instance with the following command:
SQL > CONNECT scott/tiger@orcl
What could be the reason for this?

A.    The listener is not running on the database node.
B.    The TNS_ADMIN environment variable is set to the wrong value.
C.    The orcl.oracle.com database service is not registered with the listener.
D.    The DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to the wrong value in the sqlnet.ora file.
E.    The listener is running on a different port.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Service registration enables the listener to determine whether a database service and its service handlers are available. A service handler is a dedicated server process or dispatcher that acts as a connection point to a database. During registration, the LREG process provides the listener with the instance name, database service names, and the type and addresses of service handlers. This information enables the listener to start a service handler when a client request arrives.

QUESTION 5
Examine the following steps of privilege analysis for checking and revoking excessive, unused privileges granted to users:
1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.
2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.
3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.
4. Revoke the unused privileges.
5. Compare the used and unused privileges’ lists.
6. Stop analyzing the data.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A.    1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4
B.    1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 4
C.    1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4
D.    1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4
E.    1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 4

Answer: B
Explanation:
1.Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.
3.Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.
6.Stop analyzing the data.
2.Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.
5.Compare the used and unused privileges’ lists.
4.Revoke the unused privileges.

QUESTION 6
You database is running an ARCHIVELOG mode.
The following parameter are set in your database instance:
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT = arch+%t_%r.arc
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 = `LOCATION = /disk1/archive’
DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE = 50G
DB_RECOVERY_FILE = `/u01/oradata’
Which statement is true about the archived redo log files?

A.    They are created only in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter.
B.    They are created only in the Fast Recovery Area.
C.    They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the
default location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/arch.
D.    They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and the location
specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can choose to archive redo logs to a single destination or to multiple destinations.
Destinations can be local–within the local file system or an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM) disk group–or remote (on a standby database). When you archive to multiple destinations, a copy of each filled redo log file is written to each destination. These redundant copies help ensure that archived logs are always available in the event of a failure at one of the destinations. To archive to only a single destination, specify that destination using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DESTandLOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DESTinitialization parameters. ARCHIVE_DEST initialization parameter. To archive to multiple destinations, you can choose to archive to two or more locations using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n initialization parameters, or to archive only to a primary and secondary destination using the LOG_ ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters.

QUESTION 7
Your multitenant container database (CDB) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You connect to the CDB RMAN. Examine the following command and its output:
 clip_image002[6]
You execute the following command:
RMAN > BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;
Which data files will be backed up?

A.    Data files that belong to only the root container
B.    Data files that belong to the root container and all the pluggable databases (PDBs)
C.    Data files that belong to only the root container and PDB$SEED
D.    Data files that belong to the root container and all the PDBs excluding PDB$SEED

Answer: B
Explanation:
Backing Up a Whole CDB
Backing up a whole CDB is similar to backing up a non-CDB. When you back up a whole CDB, RMAN backs up the root, all the PDBs, and the archived redo logs. You can then recover either the whole CDB, the root only, or one or more PDBs from the CDB backup.
Note:
*You can back up and recover a whole CDB, the root only, or one or more PDBs.
*Backing Up Archived Redo Logs with RMAN
Archived redo logs are the key to successful media recovery. Back them up regularly. You can back up logs with BACKUP ARCHIVELOG, or back up logs while backing up datafiles and control files by specifying BACKUP … PLUS ARCHIVELOG.

QUESTION 8
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage management (ASM). The files are stored in the DATA disk group. You execute the following command:
SQL > ALTER DISKGROUP data ADD ALIAS `+data/prod/myfile.dbf’ FOR `+data.231.45678′;
What is the result?
A.    The file `+data.231.54769′ is physically relocated to `+data/prod’ and renamed as `myfile.dbf’.
B.    The file `+data.231.54769′ is renamed as `myfile.dbf’, and copied to `+data/prod’.
C.    The file `+data.231.54769′ remains in the same location andasynonym’myfile.dbf’ is created.
D.    The file `myfile.dbf’ is created in `+data/prod’ and the reference to `+data.231.54769′ in the data
dictionary removed.

Answer: C
Explanation:
ADD ALIAS
Use this clause to create an alias name for an Oracle ASM filename. The alias_name consists of the full directory path and the alias itself.

QUESTION 9
Which three functions are performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor?

A.    Building and implementing SQL profiles
B.    Recommending the optimization of materialized views
C.    Checking query objects for missing and stale statistics
D.    Recommending bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes
E.    Recommending the restructuring of SQL queries that are using bad plans

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
The SQL Tuning Advisor takes one or more SQL statements as an input and invokes the Automatic Tuning Optimizer to perform SQL tuning on the statements. The output of the SQL Tuning Advisor is in the form of an advice or recommendations, along with a rationale for eachrecommendation and its expected benefit. The recommendation relates to collection of statistics on objects(C), creation of new indexes, restructuring of the SQL statement(E), or creation of a SQL profile(A). You can choose to accept the recommendation to complete the tuning of the SQL statements.

QUESTION 10
Examine the following command:
ALTER SYSTEM SET enable_ddl_logging=FALSE;
Which statement is true?

A.    None of the data definition language (DDL) statements are logged in the trace file.
B.    Only DDL commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert log file.
C.    A new log.xml file that contains the DDL statements is created, and the DDL command details are
removed from the alert log file.
D.    Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new database files are logged.

Answer: A
Explanation:
ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING enables or disables the writing of a subset of data definition language (DDL) statements to a DDL alert log.
The DDL log is a file that has the same format and basic behavior as the alert log, but it only contains the DDL statements issued by the database. The DDL log is created only for the RDBMS component and only if the ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING initialization parameter is set to true. When this parameter is set to false, DDL statements are not included in any log.

QUESTION 11
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains three pluggable database (PDBs). You find that the control file is damaged. You plan to use RMAN to recover the control file. There are no startup triggers associated with the PDBs.
Which three steps should you perform to recover the control file and make the database fully operational?

A.    Mount the container database (CDB) and restore the control file from the control file auto backup.
B.    Recover and open the CDB in NORMAL mode.
C.    Mount the CDB and then recover and open the database, with the RESETLOGS option.
D.    Open all the pluggable databases.
E.    Recover each pluggable database.
F.    Start the database instance in the nomount stage and restore the control file from control file auto backup.

Answer: CDF
Explanation:
Step 1: F
Step 2: D
Step 3: C: If all copies of the current control file are lost or damaged, then you must restore and mount a backup control file. You must then run the RECOVERcommand, even if no data files have been restored, and open the database with the RESETLOGS option.
Note:
*RMAN and Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control (Cloud Control) provide full support for backup and recovery in a multitenant environment. You can back up and recover a whole multitenant container database (CDB), root only, or one or more pluggable databases (PDBs).

Passing your Oracle 1Z0-060 Exam by using the latest Oracle 1Z0-060 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1z0-060.html

2014 Latest EMC E10-110 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is a characteristic feature of My Documentum for Desktop?

A.    Integration with Windows File System Explorer
B.    Recycle bin
C.    A Documentum menu bar item
D.    A customization of Webtop

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which Webtop feature enables quick access to favorite documents from the browser tree menu?

A.    Properties dialog
B.    Favorites
C.    Subscription
D.    Notification

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What happens to a Microsoft Word document when a user imports it into the repository?

A.    A copy of the document is made and imported into the repository file store.
B.    Nothing. Documentum only stores metadata along with a pointer to the document in the file system.
C.    A copy of the document is made and imported along with metadata into the repository.
D.    The original document is moved from the file system and imported into the repository file store.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In a Documentum environment, how is it apparent to a user that Microsoft Office integrations are enabled on their machine?

A.    The user is restricted to using only Microsoft Office formats when creating new documents.
B.    A Microsoft logo appears in the upper-right corner of the Webtop home page.
C.    A Documentum menu option displays when the user opens Microsoft Word.
D.    A Microsoft Office menu option displays when the user logs in to Webtop.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A Webtop user checks out a Microsoft Word document from the repository and edits it.
How will the user be prompted upon checkin of the edited document?

A.    Checkin as the same, next minor, or next major version.
B.    Checkin as the same version
C.    Checkin as either the next major or minor version
D.    Rename the new version

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
When a document object is checked in as the same version, which statement is true?

A.    All renditions are orphaned from all versions.
B.    All renditions are orphaned from the current version.
C.    No renditions are orphaned from the current version.
D.    All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of same version checkin.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
If a user has completed the checkout operation on a document object, which statement is true?

A.    Only this user or a superuser can cancel the checkout operation.
B.    Only this user can cancel the checkout operation.
C.    Only this user or a superuser cancheckin the document object.
D.    Only the superuser can cancel the checkout operation.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When a document with renditions is versioned, which statement is true?

A.    New renditions must be generated automatically.
B.    All renditions from previous version are carried over by default.
C.    All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of new version checkin.
D.    All renditions are orphaned from all versions.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true for checking in multiple document objects to a repository?

A.    The client application determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
B.    The Content Server determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
C.    The data dictionary can be configured to allow more than one document object with the same name in the same folder.
D.    The Content Server architecture does not allow document objects with the same name in the same folder.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true for a user who has Browse and Extended Delete and does not belong to any roles listed on the permission set?

A.    The user can view the document object’s content and delete the document object.
B.    The user can move or delete the document object but is unable to view the properties.
C.    The user can move or delete the document object and view its content.
D.    The user can view the properties but is unable to view the document object’s content.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true regarding versioning when a user edits version 1.1 of a document object, which is an older version than what is currently available?

A.    A new version of the document object is created, and “1.0” is appended to the edited version.
B.    A new version of the document object is created, and “2.0” is appended to the edited version.
C.    The document object is saved as version 1.1.
D.    The document object is saved as version 2.0.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A client application applies the “In Review” version label to a document object.
What is the expected behavior the next time a user performs a checkin on that document?

A.    The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document and the previous version.
B.    The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document and is removed from the previous version.
C.    The “In Review” version label cannot be applied to the new version of the document and remains with the previous version.
D.    The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document, while the previous version with the same label will be deleted by the Content Server.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A user has Edit (Write) permission on a document object that is contained in FolderA. The same user has Edit (Write) permission on FolderA and FolderB.
The user wants to move the document object from FolderA to FolderB.
Which statement is true?

A.    The user can move the document from FolderA to FolderB without acquiring additional permissions.
B.    The user must also have Delete permission on the document object and FolderA to move the document.
C.    The user must have Delete permission on the document object and both folders to move the document.
D.    The user must have Delete permission on both folders to move the document.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
When renditions are managed along with the document object’s primary rendition, which statement is true?

A.    Renditions can be of any format but multiple renditions with the same format cannot exist.
B.    Renditions can be of any format but multiple renditions with the same format cannot exist within the same version.
C.    Renditions can be of any format.
D.    Renditions can be of any format that is not the same format as the primary rendition.

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which statement is true about the ability to drag and drop objects from within Webtop to the user’s local desktop?

A.    The feature works when multiple files are selected.
B.    The feature works only when the browser’s security level is set to Medium.
C.    The feature is enabled for all users by default.
D.    The feature is only available through the clipboard.

Answer: A

QUESTION 16
What can be subscribed to in the repository?

A.    A permission set
B.    An object type
C.    A group
D.    A folder

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Where in Webtop can the default application for viewing objects be set?

A.    Preferences
B.    Tools menu
C.    Properties
D.    Advanced Search

Answer: A

Passing your EMC E10-110 Exam by using the latest E10-110 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/e10-110.html

2014 Latest Citrix 1Y0-A28 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which type of authentication server could an engineer configure in order to provide the use of RSA token authentication as a permitted authentication method to access a AAA Virtual Server?

A.    LDAP
B.    SAML
C.    RADIUS
D.    Negotiate

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network. Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?

A.    Network -> IPs
B.    System -> Auditing
C.    AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D.    Protection Features -> Filter

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address. Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access?

A.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B.    set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C.    set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Company policy states that all passwords should travel the network in encrypted packets except SNMP. Which command should the network engineer execute to comply with this policy?

A.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -ssh disabled -telnet disabled -gui enabled
B.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -telnet disabled -gui secureonly -ftp disabled
C.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -restrictaccess enabled
D.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -ssh enabled -restrictaccess enabled

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A Netscaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the Netscaler device. How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the Netscaler?

A.    Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B.    Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C.    Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D.    Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?

A.    Add a Simple ACL.
B.    Disable USNIP Mode.
C.    Create an Extended ACL.
D.    Add a Host Route to the virtual server.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site. Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?

A.    Rule
B.    Source IP
C.    Cookie Insert
D.    Custom Server ID

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Scenario: Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively. Which load balancing method should the engineer select?

A.    Least packet
B.    Round Robin
C.    Least bandwidth
D.    Least connection

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A network engineer wants to configure a NetScaler for load balancing Voice over IP traffic (VoIP).
Which hash method is the best fit for VoIP traffic?

A.    Call ID
B.    Source IP
C.    Destination IP
D.    Domain name

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A company has three HTTP servers that are load balanced using NetScaler. When users connect to the HTTP application they often receive inconsistent data or are advised that they need to log on again. Which step should the engineer take to correct this?

A.    Remove Down State Flush.
B.    Change the idle timeout value for the service.
C.    Configure persistence with appropriate timeouts.
D.    Change the global TCP Client Idle Time-Out value.

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place. Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A.    Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B.    Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C.    Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D.    Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Scenario: An application that uses HTTP for connections and other protocols for different types of content has been deployed. Load balancing virtual servers have been created for each protocol and the engineer now needs to ensure that once a load balancing decision has occurred, further requests for different content are served from the same server. How could the engineer achieve this?

A.    Create a persistency group.
B.    Set the Spillover method to DYNAMICCONNECTION.
C.    Add a new virtual server for each protocol that is not directly addressable.
D.    Set each virtual server to use Source IP Hash as the load balancing method.

Answer: A

Passing your Citrix 1Y0-A28 Exam by using the latest 1Y0-A28 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1y0-a28.html

2014 Latest Citrix 1Y0-A25 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Scenario: Nether Tech’s corporate policy requires that passwords are NOT requested for XenApp passthrough connections, except for those that pertain to members of the Nursing Users group. Nurses connect to XenApp servers hosting applications in the Nurses Worker Group. Click the Exhibit button to view a list of the policies configured in the environment.
 clip_image001
An engineer needs to prioritize the three policies so that only members of the Nurses group are prompted for passwords when they connect to their XenApp resources. What is the correct order of prioritization for the policies from lowest to highest?

A.    Unfiltered, Nurses, Corporate Users
B.    Corporate Users, Nurses, Unfiltered
C.    Unfiltered, Corporate Users, Nurses
D.    Nurses, Unfiltered, Corporate Users

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Scenario: As part of the designs for the XenDesktop site and XenApp farm at Nether Tech, a Citrix Engineer is instructed to ensure that all auto-created printers use the Citrix Universal Printer Driver. As the deployment phase begins, a home user is experiencing issues printing to a locally attached printer. When print jobs are sent to the printer, the pages print, but only with strange characters on them. To resolve the user’s printing issue, the engineer should create a Citrix User policy and __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)

A.    set a session printer to the user’s default printer
B.    set the client printer names to legacy printer names
C.    set the client printer names to standard printer names
D.    set PCL5c driver at the top of the Universal driver preference list

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: Nether Tech’s head office, which has over 400 employees, is located in the city center of Amsterdam, where the majority of the employees rely on public transport to travel to and from the office. During the winter, a significant amount of disruption is caused when staff cannot get into the office. Nether Tech wants to ensure that staff can connect to their corporate desktops from their home computers or corporate issued laptops during times of disruption. Nether Tech has a XenApp farm already. This farm can be accessed externally and all staff members have access. Nether Tech can only spare two virtual servers to facilitate a solution that will allow employees to access their own corporate physical desktops. Any solution must allow employees to work directly with their own corporate physical desktops. Which solution will best suit Nether Tech’s needs?

A.    Deploy two XenApp servers to the existing farm and publish the RDP client.
B.    Deploy two XenApp servers to the existing farm and publish a hosted desktop for all users.
C.    Deploy two desktop controllers to the existing farm and use XenDesktop to publish each user’s desktop.
D.    Deploy two desktop controllers servers to the existing farm and use XenApp to publish each user’s desktop.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Scenario: An engineer has been instructed to implement a new XenApp farm. The IT Manager at Nether Tech wants idle sessions for server hosted applications to be disconnected after two hours and idle sessions for XenApp server hosted desktops to be disconnected after eight hours. There is a separate domain group policy which disconnects idle sessions after four hours. The XenApp servers hosting the server hosted desktops are in a worker group named Apps. The XenApp servers hosting the server hosted desktop are in a worker group named Desktops. Several Computer policies are configured in the environment. Click the Exhibit button to view the list of configured Computer policies.
 clip_image001[4]
Users are complaining that their idle sessions are disconnected after four hours. What must the engineer do to meet the requirements stated in the environment?

A.    Remove the Domain Group Policy.
B.    Disable Domain Group Policy Inheritance.
C.    Change the Domain Group Policy to 8 hours.
D.    Change the Domain Group Policy to 2 hours.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: In order to complete the rollout of a new XenApp farm, a Citrix Engineer is required to set a policy to allow all client printers to auto-create for the domain group called Accounting Users. Their current unfiltered Citrix policy is configured to only auto-create the client’s default printer. The engineer must also ensure that any changes made will NOT affect other users in the farm. All the XenApp servers are in a single worker group. Which three actions must the engineer take to allow the Accounting Users group to receive all of their printers? (Choose three.)

A.    Increase the policy priority.
B.    Decrease the policy priority.
C.    Assign the policy to the Accounting User group.
D.    Assign the policy to the existing XenApp Worker group.
E.    Create a User policy and set the policy to allow the autocreation of all client printers.
F.    Create a Computer policy and set the policy to allow the autocreation of all client printers.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
Scenario: Nether Tech is delivering Windows 7 virtual desktops to 1000 employees using XenDesktop in a XenServer hosting infrastructure that consists of 16 XenServer hosts. Provisioning Services is used to provide standard OS image streaming to the virtual desktops in standard image mode. The Citrix Engineer in the environment has observed a decrease in overall performance. Which two actions should the engineer take to increase performance? (Choose two.)

A.    Delete snapshots from the XenServer storage repository.
B.    Configure the vDisk write cache mode on the target device.
C.    Configure the vDisk write cache mode on the Provisioning Services server.
D.    Create a hard drive on the XenServer storage repository for each virtual machine.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Scenario: Nether Tech has rolled out Windows Server 2008 XenApp published desktop to 1000 employees as their primary workspace since 2008. Recently the Citrix team has been receiving an increasing number of tickets on slow logons and logoffs and slow XenApp server performance. After further investigation, the Citrix team discovered low available disk space on the system drive of the XenApp servers. The majority of the disk space has been occupied by thousands of temporary Internet files and cookies on the local profile cache as well as in the roaming profile storage. The CIO of Nether Tech made a decision to discard the temporary Internet files and cookies but to keep the rest of the user profile information and reclaim local disk space. To accomplish this goal, the Citrix Engineer is looking to use Citrix Profile Management to replace Windows roaming profile. Which two group policy options in the Citrix profile management administrative template should the Citrix Engineer configure to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    In profile handling, enable “Delete locally cached profiles on logoff”.
B.    In file system, configure exclusion list: local settings\temporary internet files.
C.    In Streamed user profiles, configure logon without the download temporary Internet files folder.
D.    In Advanced Settings, configure folder redirection: c:\users\%username%\local settings\temporary internet files.
E.    In file system, configure exclusion list: C:\Documents and Settings\%username%\microsoft\internet explorer\temporary internet files.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer plans to set up a regularly scheduled backup and archive implementation for five critical Windows 2008 Server R2 virtual machines. Each virtual machine must be backed up on a different day at the same time of day and archived to a safe place for extra security. Which two actions must the engineer take to configure the scheduled backup and archive implementation for these five virtual machines? (Choose two.)

A.    Automatically archive to a remote NFS share.
B.    Automatically archive to a remote EXT3 share.
C.    Automatically archive to a local XenServer share.
D.    Create one protection and recovery policy for all five virtual machines.
E.    Create five protection and recovery policies; one for each virtual machine.

Answer: AE

Passing your Citrix 1Y0-A25 Exam by using the latest 1Y0-A25 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1y0-a25.html

2014 Latest Citrix 1Y0-A16 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Why is this the best design for the desktops for these user groups?

A.    This design provides the most security by limiting access to the sensitive applications from the virtual desktop only and keeping confidential user data private on each vDisk.
B.    This design is essential to meet the strict security requirements for data and printing while keeping administrative maintenance to a minimum since the user groups are relatively small in number.
C.    This design maintains the security requirements and provides the best user experience by allowing users to write to their own vDisk.
D.    This is the best design for users based in a corporate office where security is a big concern because, when using XenApp, data could be intercepted while traversing the network and print jobs could be misdirected to the wrong printer.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: Users in various corporate and regional offices need access to common office productivity applications and email, in addition to their own job-specific applications. Although WAN congestion is NOT a critical issue at the moment, Healthy Helping Hands’ IT staff would like to keep to a minimum the impact of farm communication to the network. Healthy Helping Hands requires that, whenever possible, users access XenApp servers in the same datacenter where their resources and data are located.
What should the architect do to meet the needs of Healthy Helping Hands while ensuring that network traffic is kept to a minimum?

A.    Create two farms with one zone each.
B.    Create one farm with four zones.
C.    Create four farms with one zone each.
D.    Create one farm with three zones.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
How should the architect achieve failover between farms?

A.    Create two Web Interface sites in each farm with unique URLs and manually update DNS records to redirect users to another Web Interface in the same farm in case of a failure.
B.    Create a custom ICA file for each farm, distribute these files to all users and allow users to manually select the farm they wish to connect to in case of a failure.
C.    Create a central Web Interface site, add both farms to the WebInterface site and allow users to manually select the application to connect to in case of a failure.
D.    Create a zone preference and failover policy that specifies a primary and secondary farm for each user group.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
How should the architect configure zone preference and failover for the XenApp farm?

A.    Create eight policies in the following priority order:
1. New York primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America sites’ subnets;
2. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America sites’ subnets;
3. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe sites’ subnets;
4. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific sites’ subnets;
5. NY primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America user group;
6. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America user group;
7. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe user group;
8. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific user group
B.     Create eight policies in the following priority order:
1. NY primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America user group;
2. New York primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America sites’ subnets;
3. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America user group;
4. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America sites’ subnets;
5. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe user group;
6. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe sites’ subnets;
7. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific user group;
8. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific sites’ subnets.
C.     Create four policies in the following priority order:
1. NY primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America user group;
2. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America user group;
3. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe user group;
4. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific user group.
D.     Create four policies in the following priority order:
1. New York primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America sites’ subnets;
2. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America sites’ subnets;
3. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe sites’ subnets;
4. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific sites’ subnets.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Why is creating two farms the best solution for this environment?

A.    This solution reduces LAN traffic within sites by ensuring that users access a XenApp server closest to their resources.
B.    This solution ensures that network administrators can customize farm settings for each datacenter.
C.    This solution enhances security by creating separate access control boundaries.
D.    This solution enhances efficient use of network bandwidth by reducing zone data collector communication.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Why should the architect apply the subnet policies with a higher priority than the user group policies?

A.    This solution ensures that users will be directed to a XenApp server in the same datacenter as their resources regardless of connection location.
B.    This solution ensures that the users will be directed to the XenApp server with the lightest load regardless of connection location.
C.    This solution ensures that users connecting from the Internet will be directed to the XenApp server closest to their physical location although they may be connecting from unknown subnets.
D.    This solution ensures that the Sales users will be directed to the closest XenApp server to their physical location although they may be connecting fromdifferent regional offices.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Based on the assessment document, which two actions must the architect take regarding Citrix
licensing in order to properly assess the environment?

A.    Restart the IIS Service.
B.    Restart the Citrix Licensing Service.
C.    Add the REPORTLOG keyword to the options file.
D.    Create a file called REPORT.LOG in C:\Program Files\Citrix\MyFiles.
E.    Select a network share to which the local system account has write access.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Scenario: Healthy Helping Hands has created a new pilot XenApp 5 Platinum Edition farm with
applications delivered to 25 pilot users. The pilot farm includes all the applications that were previously published to the HR users and some additional applications to support Manufacturing.
During the pilot week of September 14th, the users of the PositivelyPeople application reporting that the application was responding slowly.
 clip_image002
Fortunately, EdgeSight had been installed and configured in the pilot farm and was recording data during the pilot. Attached in the exhibit is the information gathered from the Transaction Network Delay report from EdgeSight. Which theory effectively explains the data that is presented in the report?

A.    The XenApp server is waiting on another host to respond, most likely the server hosting the
PositivelyPeople database.
B.    The XenApp server is waiting on the network packet queue to clear as evidenced by the 9ms
network latency being reported.
C.    The XenApp server is reaching maximum capacity, and the lack of physical resources on the
XenApp server is causing the response delay.
D.    The Network Delay on 9/19/2009 is probably the source of complaints from the HR Users. An
average network latency of almost 9ms is unacceptable.
Description: C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\Desktop\untitled.JPG

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are updating their environment.
Recertify the HR users have been experiencing intermittent outages in remote access to their application.
Which solution should be included in the project to address this problem?

A.    Issue company laptops to HR users
B.    Replace the existing Secure Gateway server.
C.    Add a second Secure Gateway server to the environment.
D.    Request that HR users upgrade their Internet connections

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: Several users in the HR user group will be traveling to trade conferences this year to meet industry training requirements and stay current on developing trends in the field While working remotely, these users will need to upload presentations and training material distributed during the conferences onto sponsored USB keys.
Based on the analysis document, how can an architect ensure that the current environment allows the HR user group to meet this need?

A.    Edit the HR Users policy to allow client mappings.
B.    Provide a secure FTP site for presentation and training material uploads.
C.    Maintain the current environment since it currently allows users to map their drives.
D.    Move the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server to the DMZ in the environment to allow for
remote connections.

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario: In order to plan for the possibility of a pandemic flu, the HR department for Healthy
Helping Hands has asked an architect to test whether the infrastructure could accommodate 300 key or ‘at risk” workers working from home over a two week period. Based on the information in the assessment document, can the existing infrastructure support such a situation?

A.    No, there are insufficient licenses available to support this requirement.
B.    Yes, sufficient capacity exists to support this temporary requirement; no action is required.
C.    No. two additional servers are required to support the remote workers during this two week
period.
D.    No. the Secure Gatew3y/Web Interface server has insufficient capacity to support this
requirement.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In the future upgrade environment, Healthy Helping Hands wants to provide the IT department with the ability to interact with user session for training and troubleshooting without compromising
security demands. How can an architect meet the needs of the Healthy Helping Hands IT
department?

A.    Enable shadowing in the current environment.
B.    Use Group Policy to enable Microsoft Remote Support.
C.    Purchase license for a third party remote viewing software.
D.    Enable shadowing once the environment is migrated to XenApp 5.

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario: The Healthy Helping Hands infrastructure assessment identified that the Manufacturing
team has access to locked-down terminals in order to complete their work. However, frequent
breakdowns due to unauthorized software installations have caused productivity problems for the
Manufacturing staff. How can an architect reduce the breakdowns as the applications are moved to a virtual environment?

A.    Upgrade the workstations to new computers.
B.    Lock the workstations using local group policies.
C.    Upgrade the workstations to diskless computers.
D.    Deploy the Desktop Appliance Lock on all workstations.

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Based on the CIO’s WAN traffic requirement, users at which two locations would have a single point of failure when attempting to access applications? (Choose two)

A.    Hong Kong Site
B.    Berlin Regional Office
C.    Rome Sates Branch Office
D.    New York Main Data Center

Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
Healthy Helping Hands is going to use Provisioning Services for the virtual desktop.
How should the architect design the Provisioning Services component of the environment?

A.    Six Provisioning Services server, two in San Francisco, two in New York, one in London and one in Hong Kong should be used.
B.    Two Provisioning Services servers, one in San Francisco and one in New York, should be used.
C.    Four Provisioning Services server, two in San Francisco and two in Now York, should be used.
D.    Eight Provisioning Services servers, two each in San Francisco, New York, London and Hong Kong should be used.

Answer: D

Passing your Citrix 1Y0-A16 Exam by using the latest 1Y0-A16 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1y0-a16.html

2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-052 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which two statements correctly describe the relation between a data file and the logical database structures? (Choose two.)

A.    An extent cannot spread across data files.
B.    A segment cannot spread across data files.
C.    A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
D.    A data file can have only one segment created in it.
E.    A data block can spread across multiple data files as it can consist of multiple operating system (OS)
blocks.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true regarding a tablespace? (Choose two.)

A.    It can span multiple databases
B.    It can consist of multiple data files
C.    It can contain blocks of different files
D.    It can contains segments of different sizes
E.    It can contains a part of nonpartitioned segment

Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Data Pump? (Choose two.)

A.    EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump
B.    DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used indedendently of the DATA Pump clients
C.    Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege
D.    Oracle Data Pump imports can be done from the export files generated in the Original Export Release 9.x
E.    EXPDP and IMPDP use the procedures provided by DBMS_METADATA to execute export and import commands

Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Identify the two situations in which the alert log file is updated with details. (Choose two.)

A.    Running a query on a table returns “ORA-600: Internal Error”
B.    Inserting a value in a table returns “ORA-01722: Invalid Number”
C.    Creating a table returns “ORA-00955: name is already used by an existing object’
D.    Inserting a value in a table returns “ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.PK_TECHP) violated.”
E.    Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX…REBUILD fails with an error “ORA-01578:
ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 14, block @ 50).”
F.    Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX …. REBUILD fails with an error “ORA-01578:
ORACLE data block corrupted (file #14, block #50).”

Answer: AE
QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true about alerts? (Choose two.)

A.    Clearing an alert sends the alert to the alert history
B.    Response actions cannot be specified with server-generated alerts
C.    The nonthreshold alerts appear in the DBA_OUTSTANDING_ALERTS view
D.    Server-generated alerts notify the problems that cannot be resolved automatically and require
administrators to be notified

Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Examine the following steps performed on a database instance:
1. The DBA grants the CREATE TABLE system privilege to the SKD user with ADMIN OPTION
2. The SKD user creates a table
3. The SKD user grants the CREATE TABLE system privilege to the HR user
4. The HR user creates a table
5. The DBA revokes the CREATE TABLE system privilege from SKD
Which statement is true after step 5 is performed?

A.    The table created by SKD is not accessible and SKD cannot create new tables
B.    The tables created by SKD and HR remain, but both cannot create new tables ActualTests.com
C.    The table created by HR remains and HR still has the CREATE TABLE system privilege
D.    The table created by HR remains and HR can grant the CREATE TABLE system privilege to other users

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You execute this command to drop the ITEM table, which has the primary key referred in the ORDERS table:
SQL> DROP TABLE scott.item CASCADE CONSTRAINTS PURGE;
Which two statements are true about the effect of the command? (Choose two.)

A.    No flashback is possible to bring back the ITEM table.
B.    The ORDERS table is dropped along with the ITEM table.
C.    The dependent referential integrity constraints in the ORDERS table are disabled.
D.    The dependent referential integrity constraints in the ORDERS table are removed.
E.    The table definition of the ITEM table and associated indexes are placed in the recycle bin.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user. The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
 clip_image001[1]

A.    The command executes successfully
B.    The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT
C.    The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without ADMIN_OPTION
D.    The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You executed this command to create a temporary table:
   SQL> CREATE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE report_work_area (
                     startdate DATE,
                     enddate  DATE,
                     class     CHAR(20)
             ) ON COMMIT PRESERVE ROWS;
Which statement is true about the rows inserted into the REPORT_WORK_AREA table during a transaction?

A.    The rows stay in the table only until session termination
B.    The rows stay in the table only until the next transaction starts on the table
C.    The rows are visible to all current sessions after the transaction in committed
D.    The rows stay available for subsequent sessions after the transaction is committed

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You want to access employee details contained in flat files as part of the EMPLOYEE table. You plan to add a new column to the EMPLOYEE table to achieve this. Which data types would you
use for the new column?

A.    CLOB
B.    BLOB
C.    BFILE
D.    LONG RAW

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The HR user creates a stand-alone procedure as follows and grants the EXECUTE privilege on the procedure to many database users:
   CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE create_dept ( v_deptno NUMBER, v_dname VARCHAR2, v_mgr NUMBER, v_loc NUMBER)
   BEGIN
         INSERT INTO hr.departments VALUES (v_deptno, v_dname, v_mgr, v_loc);
   END;
The users having permission to execute the procedure are able to insert records into the DEPARTMENTS table even though they do not have the INSERT privilege on the table. You want only those users who have privileges on the DEPARTMENTS table to be able to execute the procedure successfully. What would you suggest to the PL/SQL developers to achieve this?

A.    Create the procedure with definer’s right.
B.    Create the procedure with invoker’s right.
C.    Grant the EXECUTE privilege with GRANT OPTION on the procedure to selected users.
D.    Create the procedure as part of a PL/SQL package and grant the EXECUTE privilege on the package
to selected users.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Examine the following command that is used to create a table:
   SQL> CREATE TABLE orders (
                        oid NUMBER(6) PRIMARY KEY,
                        odate DATE,
                        ccode NUMBER (6),
                        oamt NUMBER(10,2)
             ) TABLESPACE users;
Which two statements are true about the effect of the above command? (Choose two.)

A.    A CHECK constraint is created on the OID column
B.    A NOT NULL constraint is created on the OID column
C.    The ORDERS table is the only object created in the USERS tablespace
D.    The ORDERS table and a unique index are created in the USERS tablespace
E.    The ORDERS table is created in the USERS tablepsace and a unique index is created on the OID
column in the SYSTEM tablespace

Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit to examine the details for an incident. Which statement is true regarding the status of the incident?
 clip_image002

A.    The DBA is working on the incident and prefers that the incident be kept in the ADR
B.    The incident is now in the Done state and the ADR can select the incident to be purged
C.    The incident has been newly created and is in the process of collecting diagnostic information
D.    The data collection for the incident is complete and the incident can be packaged and sent to Oracle Support

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What can you achieve by implementing reverse key index?

A.    Reverse the bytes of each column indexed including the row ID
B.    Store a bitmap for each key value instead of a list of row IDs in the leaf node
C.    Prevent contention on the highest leaf block when using sequences to generate keys
D.    Remove repeated key values from the index to fit more index entries in a given amount of disk space

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You execute the following command to audit database activities:
SQL>AUDIT DROP ANY TABLE BY scott BY SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL;
What is the effect of this command?

A.    One audit record is created for every successful DROP TABLE command executed in the session
of SCOTT
B.    One audit record is generated for the session when SCOTT grants the DROP ANY TABLE privilege
to other users
C.    One audit record is created for the whole session if user SCOTT successfully drops one or more
tables in his session
D.    One audit record is created for every session of any other user in which a table owned by SCOTT
is dropped successfully
E.    One audit record is created for every successful DROP TABLE command executed by any user to
drop tables owned by SCOTT

Answer: C

Passing your Oracle 1Z0-052 Exam by using the latest Oracle 1Z0-052 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1z0-052.html

2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-051 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE commands:
CREATE TABLE orders
(ord_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY,
ord_date DATE,
cust_id NUMBER(4));
CREATE TABLE ord_items
(ord_no NUMBER(2),
item_no NUMBER(3),
qty NUMBER(3) CHECK (qty BETWEEN 100 AND 200),
expiry_date date CHECK (expiry_date > SYSDATE),
CONSTRAINT it_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no,item_no),
CONSTRAINT ord_fk FOREIGN KEY(ord_no) REFERENCES orders(ord_no));
The above command fails when executed. What could be the reason?

A.    SYSDATE cannot be used with the CHECK constraint.
B.    The BETWEEN clause cannot be used for the CHECK constraint.
C.    The CHECK constraint cannot be placed on columns having the DATE data type.
D.    ORD_NO and ITEM_NO cannot be used as a composite primary key because ORD_NO is also
the FOREIGN KEY.

Answer: A
Explanation:
CHECK Constraint
The CHECK constraint defines a condition that each row must satisfy. The condition can use the same constructs as the query conditions, with the following exceptions:
References to the CURRVAL, NEXTVAL, LEVEL, and ROWNUM pseudocolumns Calls to SYSDATE, UID, USER, and USERENV functions
Queries that refer to other values in other rows
A single column can have multiple CHECK constraints that refer to the column in its definition. There is no limit to the number of CHECK constraints that you can define on a column. CHECK constraints can be defined at the column level or table level.
CREATE TABLE employees
(…
salary NUMBER(8,2) CONSTRAINT emp_salary_min
CHECK (salary > 0),

QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.
Using the CUSTOMERS table, y ou need to generate a report that shows an increase in the credit limit by 15% for all customers.
Customers whose credit limit has not been entered should have the message ” Not Available” displayed.
Which SQL statement would produce the required result?
 clip_image001

A.    SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit,’Not Available’)*.15 “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
B.    SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
C.    SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’)) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
D.    SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit*.15),’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;

Answer: D
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:
NVL(commission_pct,0)
NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)
NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

QUESTION 3
Examine the structure of the PROGRAMS table:
name              Null            Type
   ——           ———      ——-
PROG_ID          NOT NULL       NUMBER(3)
PROG_COST                        NUMBER(8,2)
START_DATE      NOT NULL       DATE
END_DATE DATE
Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)

A.    SELECT NVL(ADD_MONTHS(END_DATE,1),SYSDATE)
FROM programs;
B.    SELECT TO_DATE(NVL(SYSDATE-END_DATE,SYSDATE))
FROM programs;
C.    SELECT NVL(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date),’Ongoing’)
FROM programs;
D.    SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date)),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;

Answer: AD
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:
NVL(commission_pct,0)
NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)
NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)
MONTHS_BETWEEN(date1, date2): Finds the number of months between date1 and date2 The result can be positive or negative. If date1 is later than date2, the result is positive; if date1 is earlier than date2, the result is negative. The noninteger part of the result represents a portion of the month.
MONTHS_BETWEEN returns a numeric value. – answer C NVL has different datatypes – numeric and strings, which is not possible!
The data types of the original and if null parameters must always be compatible. They must either be of the same type, or it must be possible to implicitly convert if null to the type of the original parameter. The NVL function returns a value with the same data type as the original parameter.

QUESTION 4
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure:
name                 Null         Type
   ——             ———    ——-
PROD_ID             NOT NULL     NUMBER(4)
PROD_NAME                         VARCHAR2(25)
PROD_EXPIRY_DATE                 DATE
Evaluate the following two SQL statements:
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL2(prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15,”)
FROM products;
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL(prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15)
FROM products;
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?

A.    Both the statements execute and give different results.
B.    Both the statements execute and give the same result.
C.    Only the first SQL statement executes successfully.
D.    Only the second SQL statement executes successfully.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Using the NVL2 Function
The NVL2 function examines the first expression. If the first expression is not null, the NVL2 function returns the second expression. If the first expression is null, the third expression is returned.
Syntax
NVL2(expr1, expr2, expr3)
In the syntax:
expr1 is the source value or expression that may contain a null expr2 is the value that is returned if expr1 is not null expr3 is the value that is returned if expr1 is null

QUESTION 5
Examine the structure of the INVOICE table.
Name           Null           Type
   ——        ———      ——-
INV_NO        NOT NULL       NUMBER(3)
INV_DATE                       DATE
INV_AMT                        NUMBER(10,2)
Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)

A.    SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_date,’Pending’,’Incomplete’)
FROM invoice;
B.    SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_amt,inv_date,’Not Available’)
FROM invoice;
C.    SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_date,sysdate-inv_date,sysdate)
FROM invoice;
D.    SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_amt,inv_amt*.25,’Not Available’)
FROM invoice;

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The NVL2 Function
The NVL2 function provides an enhancement to NVL but serves a very similar purpose. It evaluates whether a column or expression of any data type is null or not.
5-6 The NVL function\
If the first term is not null, the second parameter is returned, else the third parameter is returned. Recall that the NVL function is different since it returns the original term if it is not null. The NVL2 function takes three mandatory parameters. Its syntax is NVL2(original, ifnotnull, ifnull), where original represents the term being tested. Ifnotnull is returned if original is not null, and ifnull is returned if original is null. The data types of the ifnotnull and ifnull parameters must be compatible, and they cannot be of type LONG.
They must either be of the same type, or it must be possible to convert ifnull to the type of the ifnotnull parameter. The data type returned by the NVL2 function is the same as that of the ifnotnull parameter.

QUESTION 6
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE commands:
CREATE TABLE orders
(ord_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY,
ord_date DATE,
cust_id NUMBER(4));
CREATE TABLE ord_items
(ord_no NUMBER(2),
item_no NUMBER(3),
qty NUMBER(3) CHECK (qty BETWEEN 100 AND 200),
expiry_date date CHECK (expiry_date > SYSDATE),
CONSTRAINT it_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no,item_no),
CONSTRAINT ord_fk FOREIGN KEY(ord_no) REFERENCES orders(ord_no));
The above command fails when executed. What could be the reason?

A.    SYSDATE cannot be used with the CHECK constraint.
B.    The BETWEEN clause cannot be used for the CHECK constraint.
C.    The CHECK constraint cannot be placed on columns having the DATE data type.
D.    ORD_NO and ITEM_NO cannot be used as a composite primary key because ORD_NO is also
the FOREIGN KEY.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about sub queries are true? (Choose two.)

A.    A sub query should retrieve only one row.
B.    A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows.
C.    A sub query can be used only in SQL query statements.
D.    Sub queries CANNOT be nested by more than two levels.
E.    A sub query CANNOT be used in an SQL query statement that uses group functions.
F.    When a sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, the
column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.

Answer: BF
Explanation:
sub query can retrieve zero or more rows, sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, and the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.
Incorrect answer:
Asub query can retrieve zero or more rows
Csub query is not SQL query statement
Dsub query can be nested
Egroup function can be use with sub query

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose three.)

A.    Subqueries can contain GROUP BY and ORDER BY clauses.
B.    Main query and subquery can get data from different tables.
C.    Main query and subquery must get data from the same tables.
D.    Subqueries can contain ORDER BY but not the GROUP BY clause.
E.    Only one column or expression can be compared between the main query and subquery.
F.    Multiple columns or expressions can be compared between the main query and subquery.

Answer: ABF
Explanation:
SUBQUERIES can be used in the SELECT list and in the FROM, WHERE, and HAVING clauses
of a query.
A subquery can have any of the usual clauses for selection and projection. The following are required clauses:
A SELECT list
A FROM clause
The following are optional clauses:
WHERE
GROUP BY
HAVING
The subquery (or subqueries) within a statement must be executed before the parent query that calls it, in order that the results of the subquery can be passed to the parent.

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true regarding the UNION operator?

A.    The number of columns selected in all SELECT statements need to be the same
B.    Names of all columns must be identical across all SELECT statements
C.    By default, the output is not sorted
D.    NULL values are not ignored during duplicate checking

Answer: A
Explanation:
The SQL UNION query allows you to combine the result sets of two or more SQL SELECT statements. It removes duplicate rows between the various SELECT statements. Each SQL SELECT statement within the UNION query must have the same number of fields in the result sets with similar data types.

QUESTION 10
Examine the structure of the PROGRAMS table:
name              Null            Type
   ——           ———      ——-
PROG_ID          NOT NULL       NUMBER(3)
PROG_COST                        NUMBER(8,2)
START_DATE      NOT NULL       DATE
END_DATE DATE
Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)

A.    SELECT NVL(ADD_MONTHS(END_DATE,1),SYSDATE)
FROM programs;
B.    SELECT TO_DATE(NVL(SYSDATE-END_DATE,SYSDATE))
FROM programs;
C.    SELECT NVL(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date),’Ongoing’)
FROM programs;
D.    SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date)),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;

Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure:
name                 Null         Type
   ——             ———    ——-
PROD_ID             NOT NULL     NUMBER(4)
PROD_NAME                         VARCHAR2(25)
PROD_EXPIRY_DATE                 DATE
Evaluate the following two SQL statements:
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL2(prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15,”)
FROM products;
SQL>SELECT prod_id, NVL(prod_expiry_date, prod_expiry_date + 15)
FROM products;
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?

A.    Both the statements execute and give different results.
B.    Both the statements execute and give the same result.
C.    Only the first SQL statement executes successfully.
D.    Only the second SQL statement executes successfully.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SQL> SELECT promo_id, promo_category
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_category = ‘Internet’ ORDER BY 2 DESC
UNION
SELECT promo_id, promo_category
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_category = ‘TV’
UNION
SELECT promo_id, promo_category
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_category =’Radio’;
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?

A.    It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY.
B.    It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the ORDER BY clause with
SET operators.
C.    It executes successfully but ignores the ORDER BY clause because it is not located at the end
of the compound statement.
D.    It produces an error because the ORDER BY clause should appear only at the end of a compound
query-that is, with the last SELECT statement.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Using the ORDER BY Clause in Set Operations
The ORDER BY clause can appear only once at the end of the compound query. Component queries cannot have individual ORDER BY clauses. The ORDER BY clause recognizes only the columns of the first SELECT query.
By default, the first column of the first SELECT query is used to sort the output in an ascending order.
Passing your Oracle 1Z0-051 Exam by using the latest Oracle 1Z0-051 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1z0-051.html

2014 Latest EXIN ITIL Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?

A.    Customer / Business Needs
B.    Service Release
C.    Service Requirements
D.    Service Solution

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Service Acceptance criteria are used to?

A.    Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
B.    Ensure Portfolio Management is in place
C.    Ensure delivery and support of a service
D.    Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT a part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking the overall service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun

A.    2, 3 and 4 only
B.    1, 2 and 4 only
C.    1, 2 and 3 only
D.    1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?

A.    Service level agreements (SLAs)
B.    Third-party contracts
C.    The service portfolio
D.    Operational level agreements (OLAs)

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?

A.    To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B.    To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C.    To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
D.    To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

A.    Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
B.    Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
C.    Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D.    Ensuring that all assets are accounted for

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A.    Availability Management
B.    Service Level Management
C.    Continual Service Improvement
D.    Business Relationship Management

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following activities are carried out in the “Where do we want to be?” step of the continual service improvement (CSI) model / approach?

A.    Implementing service and process improvements
B.    Reviewing measurable improvements
C.    Creating a baseline
D.    Defining measurable targets

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A.    Data
B.    Knowledge
C.    Wisdom
D.    Information

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?

A.    Incident Management
B.    Request Fulfillment
C.    Release and Deployment Management
D.    Access management

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation
2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services

A.    Both of the above
B.    Neither of the above
C.    2 only
D.    1 only

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

A.    To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B.    To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
C.    To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
D.    To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services

Answer: B

Passing your EXIN ITIL Exam by using the latest ITIL Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/itil-v3.html

Pages: 1 2 ... 323 324 325 326 327 ... 343 344