2014 Latest EXIN EX0-110 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?

A.    It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered certification body once a year.
B.    It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C.    It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it is being delivered.
D.    It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.

Answer: B

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2014 Latest EXIN EX0-110 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?

A.    It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered certification body once a year.
B.    It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C.    It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it is being delivered.
D.    It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What shall the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with the suppliers be aligned with?

A.    the Service Level Plans
B.    the Service Management Plans
C.    the SLAs with the other parties
D.    the SLAs with the customers

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
When improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to be considered to ensure ongoing compliance with the service providerWhen improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to be considered to ensure on-going compliance with the service provider? Corporate objectives / requirements?

A.    A competitor process managementsystemA competitor? process management system
B.    Any standards defined by the company itself
C.    The budget available to the Personnel Department
D.    The time to update the process documentation

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the definition of quality according to ISO 9000?

A.    Quality is when all features of a service which are agreed with the customer are being delivered to the customer.
B.    Quality is when the expectations from the customer to a certain service or product are being delivered to the customer.
C.    Quality is when the requirements and expectations of all stakeholders involved in the product lifecycle are being fulfilled.
D.    Quality is when the agreed service levels of a specific and defined service are met during morethen six subsequent periods.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following actions should be taken to ensure continual improvement of a Service Management System?

A.    Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement.
B.    Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions.
C.    Review the Service Management System at least annually.
D.    Start an internal service organization evaluation.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An objective of capacity management is to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient capacity to meet the current and future agreed demands of the customer’s business needs. What document is produced to support this objective?

A.    Availability plan
B.    Business resource plan
C.    Capacity plan
D.    Service Management plan

Answer: C
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2014 Latest EMC E20-016 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
An organization purchased a NAS storage infrastructure to service all its applications for three years. Various cost components for this deployment are as follows:
• Initial cost includes the purchase cost of $2,000 and an installation charge of $400.
• Organization needs to pay $200 per year for maintenance and $100 per year as license fees.
• From Year 2, the organization must pay $1,000 per year for OS upgrades.
At the end of the three years, the organization needs to pay a recycling fee of $50 to dispose of the NAS device that will no longer be needed. What is the total cost of ownership (TCO) each year to implement this technology infrastructure?

A.    $1,783
B.    $2,675
C.    $3,566
D.    $5,350

Answer: A

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2014 Latest CompTIA TK0-201 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?

A.    It measures the application of the skills taught.
B.    It validates the quality of the course material.
C.    It requires the learners to use what they learned.
D.    It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An instructor asks an open-ended question to the class. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the instructor is demonstrating?

A.    Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.
B.    Elicit learner feedback on the adequacy of instructor responses.
C.    Provide feedback that is specific to learners needs.
D.    Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following would be on an evaluation when seeking feedback concerning courseware material used during a class?

A.    Design of the courseware materials
B.    Accuracy of the courseware
C.    Cost of the courseware
D.    Instructor’s use of the courseware

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes a form of feedback with the GREATEST positive impact?

A.    Suggestions that focus on procedures versus the concepts
B.    Measurable results from summative assessments
C.    Specific comments on errors with suggestions on how to improve
D.    Comparing learner performance with other learners

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?

A.    Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.
B.    Administer an exam to verify learner’s knowledge of the material.
C.    Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.
D.    Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
During a computer software training class the projector fails. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?

A.    Attempt to quickly fix the projector.
B.    Move the class to another room.
C.    Take a class break and find another projector.
D.    Cancel the class and reschedule for a later date.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A company is preparing to roll-out a training course on advanced accounting skills. The company has asked a contract instructor to facilitate the course. The instructor has no background in accounting.
Which of the following should the instructor do?

A.    Ask to team teach the course with an expert
B.    Accept the offer contingent upon six weeks of preparation time
C.    Decline the offer based on lack of knowledge of accounting principles
D.    Accept the offer and learn the content by observing accounting experts

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An instructor is conducting a virtual classroom with an international audience and finds that any single method used for delivery of the material leaves about a third of the learners uninvolved.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.    Send out a public message to the class asking which method of delivery is working best for the class
B.    Send out a private message to each learner asking which method of delivery is working best for them
C.    Query for commonalities amongst the learners,
D.    Continue to use multiple means of delivery

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An instructor is beginning a course and wants to measure the level of expertise of the learners. Which of the following is the BEST method for measuring the level of understanding over the course material?

A.    Ask the learners about their level of understanding over the course material.
B.    Assume that the class has a medium level of understanding over the course material.
C.    Deliver a pre-test covering the course objectives.
D.    Ask another instructor who has taught the learners before.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An instructor is discussing key material for a course when a learner asks a question that will lead to material that the class is not yet prepared for. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the instructor?

A.    Inform the learner that the question can be asked during a break
B.    Answer the question as not doing so may cause the learner to be confused.
C.    Defer the question and assure the learner that it will be covered later in the course.
D.    Inform the learner that the question falls outside of scope and will not be answered.

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An instructor receives poor evaluations for a particular class. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST to improve the performance?

A.    Read the comments to gain understanding of the low scores to find specific areas to work on.
B.    Re-develop the course from scratch.
C.    Practice the course in front of other instructors to receive direct feedback on how to improve.
D.    Contact each learner and ask for clarity on their responses.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An instructor is presenting to a class and notices that a particular learner is not paying attention; however, when the instructor gives a pop quiz, this learner earns the best grade. Which of the following BEST describes the situation?

A.    The quiz did not cover the class concepts effectively
B.    The learner has mastery of the information tested.
C.    The quiz motivated the learner.
D.    The answers to the pop quiz were distributed prior to class

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
At the end of a class, the instructor provides an online evaluation of the course to the learners. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to put on the evaluation? (Select TWO).

A.    Instructor’s presentation abilities
B.    Accessibility of the facility
C.    Technical accuracy of the course material
D.    Amount of time the learner studied for the course
E.    Job title of the learner

Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
An instructor delivering a class with thirty learners defines acceptable and non-acceptable behavior at the beginning of the class on the first day. The instructor also requests learners to be on time. The second day of class a few learners show up late to class. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to take to resolve this issue?

A.    Start the class and as each late learner comes in, thank them for joining the class.
B.    Wait to start the class until all the learners have arrived and are react to start.
C.    Once all the learners have arrived, remind the learners of all the class policies.
D.    Begin class on time and privately talk with the learners who were late.

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
An instructor has placed the learners into groups to discuss several topics. When the instructor walked around to monitor the group progress, the learners were off-task. Which of the following contributes MOST frequently to this situation?

A.    The learners were disinterested in group discussions about the topics.
B.    The learners were neither familiar with nor understood the assigned topics.
C.    The learners were not comfortable with the members of the group.
D.    The learners were ready for a break and the instructor failed to recognize this.

Answer: B
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2014 Latest CompTIA PK0-003 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following are components of a project charter? (Select THREE).

A.    Communication requirements
B.    Risk assessment
C.    Project objectives
D.    Problem statement
E.    Stakeholder identification
F.    Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Answer: CDE

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2014 Latest Vmware VCPVCD510 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
An administrator is auditing IP address use in a specific Organizational Network.
Where will the administrator find this information?

A.    The administrator can run a Global IP Allocation report
B.    The information can be located in the IP Allocation properties for the specific Organizational Network
C.    The information can be located in the System Properties of the Organizational Network
D.    The administrator can run an IP Allocation report for the specific Organizational Network

Answer: B

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2014 Latest Vmware VDCD510 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
A logical design can contain which of the following? (Choose three)

A.    BIOS settings
B.    Data flow
C.    Key component relationships
D.    High-level diagrams
E.    Server host names

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other.
A logical diagram is high level in nature and is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered

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2014 Latest Citrix 1Y0-A11 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a 7000 NetScaler system when __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A.    redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B.    redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C.    the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 1 Gb/sec
D.    the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 8 Gb/sec

Answer: C

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2014 Latest Citrix 1Y0-A09 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Scenario: During the creation of a Microsoft Windows 2003 Standard Edition server virtual machine (VM), an administrator is asked to make as many processors available as possible to allow a developer to test a new multi-cpu application. What is the maximum number of VCPUs that an administrator can assign to this VM?

A.    2
B.    4
C.    8
D.    16

Answer: B

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2014 Latest CompTIA CN0-201 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Voice over IP is an application that requires efficient use of bandwidth and reliability. VoIP must not suffer the delays that can be seen at times with Web sites and Web applications. Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?

A.    RTP
B.    QoS
C.    DNS
D.    RSTP

Answer: B

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2014 Latest CompTIA CLO-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?

A.    Pay as you go agreements
B.    Short-term financial commitment
C.    Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D.    Vendor lock-in potential

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?

A.    It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B.    It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C.    It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D.    It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?

A.    Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B.    Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C.    Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D.    Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?

A.    HTML, IDM, JSON
B.    HTML, IDM, XML
C.    HTML, JSON, XML
D.    DM, JSON, XML

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example
of:

A.    IaaS.
B.    SaaS
C.    PaaS.
D.    On-demand software.
E.    None of the above.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in a given time?

A.    Network bandwidth
B.    Network QoS
C.    Network latency
D.    Network speed

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
How can the internal IT department successfully react to cloud computing?

A.    By becoming an external cloud provider
B.    By becoming an internal cloud provider
C.    By outsourcing all IT services
D.    By solely focusing on security issues

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?

A.    Improving cost structure
B.    Improving customer satisfaction
C.    Increasing control over IT systems
D.    Decrease of security issues

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following assets have risks related to a cloud provider going out of business?

A.    Data stored at the provider
B.    Cloud management tools housed at the provider
C.    Investment in servers at the provider
D.    Machine capacity at the provider

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is included in a compliance audit?

A.    Analyzing chargeback agreements
B.    Analyzing cloud provider Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
C.    Analyzing identity management and access controls
D.    Analyzing the provider release calendar

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
How does cloud computing influence service operations?

A.    Cloud computing is more cost effective
B.    The provisioning of servers and services is quicker or ceases to be an issue
C.    The provisioning of servers and services can be much slower
D.    The security level will increase

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Cloud computing brings new challenges to ___________ management, because traditional licensing models do not fit well with scalable resources.

A.    commercial
B.    financial
C.    legal
D.    service

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is indicated by a high number of variations of different virtual servers?

A.    Lack of an automated provisioning process of the virtual machines
B.    Lack of automation of virtual machine image manufacturing
C.    Lack of manpower to monitor the virtual machines
D.    Lack of physical servers to accommodate the different virtual servers

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Cloud computing is priced according to ___________ or has ___________, rather than having upfront costs.

A.    recurring subscription, a yearly contract
B.    a yearly contract, usage-based charges
C.    recurring subscription, usage-based charges
D.    number of users, a yearly contract

Answer: C
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2014 Latest Citrix 1Y0-A08 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Scenario: Printing errors are generated randomly in a Citrix XenApp server farm. An investigation reveals that the Citrix Print Manager Service has been failing at random intervals. An administrator is asked to use the Health Monitoring and Recovery feature to check the service.What should the administrator do to monitor the service?

A.    Create a custom test
B.    Install the HMR Test Pack
C.    Add the CPSVCTEST.EXE test
D.    Add the SPOOLERTEST.EXE test

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator needs to ensure that users on Windows XP workstations launch published applications with 16-bit colors in a 1024X768 session window. Users in this environment are launching published applications in seamless mode. Which user experience setting should the administrator use in the ICAClient.ADM template?

A.    Audio
B.    Display
C.    Graphics
D.    Applications

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Scenario: An administrator has enabled Configuration Logging in a Citrix XenApp farm. Following a number of changes applied over the weekend, users have begun to complain about issues related to accessing farm resources.How can the administrator review the changes implemented in the farm?

A.    Use the Event Viewer on the data store server
B.    Use the Event Viewer on the Data Collector server
C.    Run the Configuration Logging report using SQL reporting services
D.    Run the Configuration Logging report using the Access Management Console

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which Citrix service directly depends on the IMA service?

A.    WMI
B.    Licensing
C.    XTE Server
D.    Print Manager

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is the impact on the user sessions connected over ICA if the IMA service on a Citrix XenApp server is restarted?

A.    The user sessions are forcibly disconnected
B.    The user sessions continue to work uninterrupted
C.    All sessions on the server are gracefully logged off
D.    Users receive an IMA error message but can continue working

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What are two options that are available for the scheduling of the virtual memory management optimization process? (Choose two.)

A.    Daily
B.    Every two weeks
C.    Only at startup time
D.    Only at shutdown time

Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Scenario: Currently, the Citrix XenApp server farm hosts several streamed applications. The administrator is given a new business intelligence application that leverages Microsoft Excel for data mining. This new business intelligence application needs to be streamed. Microsoft Excel is currently profiled and is a streamed application.What should the administrator do to enable Microsoft Excel as part of this business intelligence application profile using the least amount of storage space?

A.    Create a new profile based on Microsoft Excel Viewer and the business intelligence application
B.    Create a new profile and use the Inter-Isolation Communication option to combine both applications
C.    Create a pre-launch script that launches the profile of the new application and apply it to the existing Microsoft Excel profile
D.    Create a new profile and publish the streamed application using an alternate profile that points to the Microsoft Excel profile

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A new resource-intensive application has been added to a farm that consists of single CPU servers, and users are now complaining about poor application performance. What should the administrator enable in order to address this issue?

A.    Fair sharing of CPU between sessions in the farm
B.    The CPU Utilization Management/CPU Rebalancer service
C.    A load evaluator that does NOT include CPU or memory utilization
D.    The removal of servers from the load balancing table within Health Monitoring and Recovery

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
In which situation should the “CPU Utilization Management/CPU Rebalancer” service be set to start automatically?

A.    Citrix XenApp runs on a single processor server
B.    The Resource Manager tool is used to monitor CPU sharing
C.    It is desirable to monitor CPU sharing using the Access Management Console
D.    Multiple instances of a single-threaded application are running on the same CPU

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Scenario: An administrator enables Special Folder Redirection in a Citrix XenApp farm. Windows Vista users are able to save files successfully to their local Documents’ folder. However, when a user tries to save a music file to the Music folder, the user was unable to see the file on the local client drive.What would prevent the user from seeing the saved music file on the local machine?

A.    The user saved the file as a .WAV instead of .MP3
B.    The Special Folder Redirection feature only works for the Documents and Desktop folders
C.    The “Provide special folder redirection to all users” option is de-selected in the XenApp Web site properties
D.    The “Provide special folder redirection to all users” option is de-selected in the XenApp Services site properties

Answer: B
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2014 Latest Citrix 1Y0-A06 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which step must an administrator take before configuring administrative roles within a Provisioning Server environment?

A.    Create an administrative service account
B.    Create the administrative groups in Active Directory
C.    Grant the farm administrator db_admin rights in SQL
D.    Add the currently logged in user to the local administrator group

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator is planning a Provisioning Server 5.0 environment for a worldwide organization; there are four offices on two continents. The administrator intends to set up a different farm for each of the four office locations in North America and Europe. How many databases must the administrator plan for when setting up the Provisioning Server 5.0 environment?

A.    Four databases, one for each farm
B.    Two databases, one for each continent
C.    One database to keep all vDisks centralized
D.    Five databases, one for each farm and a back up

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
For which purpose do target devices use TFTP?

A.    To request and receive a boot file from the TFTP service
B.    To request and receive the IP address of the TFTP server
C.    To contact the Stream Service to stream a vDisk to the target device
D.    To contact the least busy Provisioning Server to stream a vDisk to the target device

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
According to best practices, what should an administrator do prior to installing Provisioning Server?

A.    Set up a proxy DHCP
B.    Set up the SOAP service
C.    Disable spanning tree portfast mode
D.    Assign a static IP address to each server

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which DHCP option identifies the IP address of the TFTP service?

A.    60
B.    66
C.    67
D.    69

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An administrator is configuring a store that points to the UNC path of the Windows file share where the vDisks are stored. Which two store types could the administrator be configuring in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    Site
B.    Farm
C.    Private
D.    Distributed

Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
What are the four configuration requirements for a user or system account running the Stream Service? (Choose four.)

A.    Registry read access
B.    Registry read/write access
C.    Domain administration rights
D.    Read/write access to any vDisk location
E.    Datareader/Datawriter permissions to the data store
F.    Read/write access to C:\Program Files\Citrix\Provisioning Server

Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An organization has several branch offices. Each branch office will have an administrator that manages target devices for their location. The farm administrator will oversee the branch office administrators and wishes to make role delegation simple and easy to manage. How should the farm administrator lay out the farm?

A.    Configure a single farm store
B.    Set up a farm for each branch location
C.    Create sites according to branch location
D.    Assign each branch location a farm administrator

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator needs to ensure that all DHCP broadcasts are allowed through the routers in a network environment. What must the administrator do to ensure communication between target devices and the Provisioning Server are allowed through the routers in the network?

A.    Configure options 66 and 67 on the DHCP server.
B.    Configure the router using the ip helper command.
C.    Enable spanning tree portfast mode on all switch ports.
D.    Disable spanning tree protocol in the network environment.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: An administrator wants to delegate management of a Provisioning Server farm. The administrator needs to delegate only these specific tasks:
1. Shut down target devices
2. Boot target devices
3. Send messages to target devices
Which role should the administrator assign for these tasks?

A.    Device Operator
B.    Site Administrator
C.    Farm Administrator
D.    Device Administrator

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
When preparing to build a vDisk image from a Master Target Device, which boot option should an administrator select in the target device properties?

A.    vDisk
B.    Hard Disk
C.    Floppy Disk
D.    local HD as a boot device

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An administrator is preparing a Master Target Device for imaging. What should the administrator do before installing the target device software on the Master Target Device?

A.    Turn on spanning tree
B.    Configure the network adapter BIOS
C.    Run the Provisioning Server Image Builder
D.    Enable hibernation and power management features

Answer: B
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