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QUESTION 222
In Cisco IOS routers, which chipset is the PVDM2-32 DSP hardware based on?

A. C5441
B. C549
C. C5510
D. C5421
E. Broadcom 1500

Answer: C

QUESTION 223
Which two analog telephony signaling methods are most vulnerable to glare conditions? (Choose two.)

A. FXS Loop-start
B. FXO Ground-start
C. E&M Wink-start
D. E&M Delay-dial
E. E&M Immediate-start
F. E&M Feature Group D

Answer: AE
Explanation:
The loop start signaling method is more common and is typically used by residential phone lines.
When a voice port is configured with loop start signaling, the device (telephone) closes the circuit loop that signals the CO voice port to provide dial tone; an incoming call is signaled on the CO by supplying a predefined voltage on the line. The loop start signaling method has one main disadvantage in that it has no method of preventing both sides of the connection from attempting to seize the line at the same time; this condition is referred to as glare. Because of this, loop start signaling is typically not used on high demand circuits.
With immediate-start, the calling side of the connection seizes the line by going off hook on the Elead and address information is sent using dual-tone multifrequency (DTMF) digits. Immediate start signaling is vulnerable to glare just like loop-start signaling.

QUESTION 224
Which digital modulation method is used to transmit caller ID information on analog FXS ports on Cisco IOS routers?

A. DTMF
B. PSK
C. FSK
D. MF
E. pulse dialing

Answer: C

QUESTION 225
How many signaling bits are there in each T1 time slot using channel associated signaling with Super Frame?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 12

Answer: B

QUESTION 226
What is the maximum one-way delay, in milliseconds, between any two Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers in a non-Session Management Edition cluster over an IP WAN?

A. 20
B. 40
C. 80
D. 160
E. 250

Answer: B

QUESTION 227
Which design restriction applies to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition clustering over the WAN deployment with extended round-trip times in Cisco Unified CM 9.1 and later releases?

A. SIP and H.323 intercluster trunks are supported.
B. Only SIP trunk is supported.
C. SIP trunks and H.323 gateways are supported.
D. A minimum of 1.544 Mb/s bandwidth is required for all traffic between any two nodes in the cluster.
E. Only RSVP agents can be configured and registered to the SME cluster as media resources.

Answer: B

QUESTION 228
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment model for clustering over the IP WAN mandates a primary and a backup subscriber at the same site?

A. multisite with centralized call processing
B. multisite with distributed call processing
C. local failover
D. remote failover
E. remote failover with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express as SRST

Answer: C

QUESTION 229
Refer to the exhibit. All displayed devices are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager server and the phones are engaged in an active call. Assume that the provided configurations exist at the phone line level and multicast MOH is disabled cluster wide.
Which description of what will happen when the user of IP phone A presses the Hold soft key is true?

A. IP phone B receives audio source 2 from MOH server A.
B. IP phone B receives audio source 3 from MOH server A.
C. IP phone B receives audio source 2 from MOH server B.
D. IP phone B receives audio source 3 from MOH server B.
E. IP phone B receives audio source 1 from MOH server A.

Answer: C

QUESTION 230
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system returns user busy tone to any additional calls?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

Answer: D

QUESTION 231
When calls are placed by certain Cisco Unified Communications Manager supplementary services, the Local Route Group feature will be bypassed. Which of these does not belong to the supplementary services?

A. Call Back
B. Call Forward
C. Message Waiting indicator
D. Mobility Follow Me
E. Path Replacement

Answer: B

QUESTION 232
Which statement about whisper intercom implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct?

A. Only one-way audio exists from the calling to the called party.
B. The speaker volume on the called phone will be reduced automatically to avoid disturbance to
other users nearby.
C. The called party auto-answers the call in headset mode.
D. Only one-way audio exists from the called to the calling party.
E. Whisper Intercom is visual only, there is no audio.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 71
Which statement describes the call recording operation on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express call agents that use Cisco IPPA?

A.    Recording is facilitated via desktop monitoring on supported IP phones.
B.    Automatic recording is supported.
C.    Only G.711 codec is supported.
D.    Only SPAN port monitoring is supported.
E.    Call recording is not supported on Cisco Unified CCX call agents that use Cisco IPPA.

Answer: D
Explanation:
There is no mechanism created as of now to record the call so we first span and record it from packet capture or from third party software.

QUESTION 72
Which protocol that is used between Cisco IM and Presence and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is responsible for the exchange of phone state presence information?

A.    AXL/SOAP
B.    CTI/QBE
C.    SIP/SIMPLE
D.    LDAP
E.    XMPP

Answer: C
Answer: C
Explanation:
To provide interoperability between communications systems, SIP is the protocol
leveraged. Enterprise Presence solutions need to provide for a uniform definition of the main communication services such as IM, voice, video, e-mail, web calendaring, and so on, while SIP delivers the necessary features.

QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. In this high-availability Cisco IM and Presence deployment with three subclusters, the first user is assigned to server 1A; the second user is assigned to server 2A; and the third user is assigned to server 3A. Assume that the Cisco IM and Presence is set to Active/Standby mode, to which server should the fourth user be assigned?

A.    1A
B.    3B
C.    1B
D.    2A
E.    3A

Answer: A
Explanation:
This deployment model provides the same level of redundancy and high availability as outlined in the “Balanced Redundant High-Availability Deployment” section in this chapter.
The only difference is that users are not deployed in a balanced fashion, but rather all reside on the primary server in the subcluster, and the backup server is there as a standby option if a node failure occurs.

QUESTION 74
Which two enterprise presence domains can federate with Cisco IM and Presence by using SIP? (Choose two.)

A.    AOL
B.    Microsoft OCS
C.    IBM Sametime
D.    Cisco WebEx Connect
E.    Google Talk
F.    Cisco Unified Presence 8.X Releases

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Microsoft Lync and OCS support presence services with sip as well as AOL so to sip is easy to troubleshoot and feasible for signaling that’s why cisco federate these with sip.

QUESTION 75
Which statement describes the external database requirement for the Cisco IM and Presence permanent group chat feature?

A.    All nodes in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster can share a physical external database.
B.    All nodes in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster can share a logical external database.
C.    Each node in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster must have its own physical external database.
D.    Each node in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster must have its own logical external database.
E.    An external database is not mandatory.

Answer: D
Explanation:
When you configure an external database entry on IM and Presence, you assign the external database to a node, or nodes, in your cluster as follows:
For the Compliance feature, you require at least one external database per cluster. Depending on your deployment requirements, you can also configure a separate external database per node.
For the Permanent Group Chat feature, you require a unique external database per node. Configure and assign a unique external database for each node in your cluster.
If you deploy both the Permanent Group Chat and Compliance features on an IM and Presence node, you can assign the same external database to both features.

QUESTION 76
Which external database software is required for the Cisco IM and Presence compliance feature?

A.    MySQL
B.    EnterpriseDB
C.    MSSQL
D.    SQLite
E.    PostgreSQL

Answer: E
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cups/8_0/english/install_upgrade/databa se/guide/Preparing_database_setup.html#wp1053954

QUESTION 77
Which Cisco IM and Presence service is responsible for logging all IM traffic that passes through the IM and Presence server to an external database for IM compliance?

A.    Cisco Presence Engine
B.    Cisco Serviceability Reporter
C.    Cisco Sync Agent
D.    Cisco XCP Connection Manager
E.    Cisco XCP Message Archiver

Answer: E
Explanation:
The Cisco Unified Presence XCP Message Archiver service supports the IM Compliance feature. The IM Compliance feature logs all messages sent to and from the Cisco Unified Presence server, including point-to-point messages, and messages from adhoc (temporary) and permanent chat rooms for the Chat feature. Messages are logged to an external Cisco-supported database.

QUESTION 78
Which two statements about the Cisco UC on UCS specs-based virtualization support model are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It has a configuration-based approach.
B.    It has a rule-based approach.
C.    It has less hardware flexibility compared to the third-party server specs-based support model.
D.    It has less hardware flexibility compared to the UC on UCS TRC support model.
E.    VMware vCenter is optional with this support model.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/UC_Virtualization_Supported_Hardware#UC_on_UCS_Teste d_Reference_Configurations

QUESTION 79
Which definition is included in a Cisco UC on UCS TRC?

A.    required RAID configuration, when the TRC uses direct-attached storage
B.    configuration of virtual-to-physical network interface mapping
C.    step-by-step procedures for hardware BIOS, firmware, drivers, and RAID setup
D.    configuration settings and patch recommendations for VMware software
E.    server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) by name only; part numbers
are not included because they change over time

Answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) at the orderable part number level.
Required RAID configuration (e.g. RAID5, RAID10, etc.) – including battery backup cache or SuperCap – when the TRC uses DAS storage Guidance on hardware installation and basic setup. Design, installation and configuration of external hardware is not included in TRC definition, such as:
Configuration settings, patch recommendations or step by step procedures for VMware software are not included in TRC definition.
Infrastructure solutions such as Vblock from Virtual Computing Environment may also be leveraged for configuration details not included in the TRC definition.

QUESTION 80
Which capability is support by LLDP-MED but not by Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A.    LAN speed discovery
B.    network policy discovery
C.    location identification discovery
D.    power discovery
E.    trust extension

Answer: A
Explanation:
LLDP-MED supports both LAN speed and duplex discovery. Cisco Discovery Protocol supports duplex discovery only, but this limited support is not seen as a problem because if there is a speed mismatch, LLDP-MED and Cisco Discovery Protocol cannot be exchanged and thus cannot be used to detect the mismatch.


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QUESTION 61
Which message-handling behavior describes how Cisco Unity Connection Single Inbox works for Outlook users who do not have ViewMail installed?

A.    Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as emails without a WAV file attachment.
B.    Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as voice messages.
C.    Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as emails with a WAV file attachment.
D.    Cisco Unity Connection adds a Voice Outbox folder to the Outlook mailbox.
E.    Replies to Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are sent to Exchange as well as the Cisco Unity
Connection mailbox for the recipient.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco unity here acts as a imap server for yhe outlook user who don’t have view mail installed so user send their request as an imap client and unity will revert back with email and wav file attached to play.

QUESTION 62
When Single Inbox is configured, what will happen to an email message that was moved from any Outlook folder to the Voice Outbox folder?

A.    The email message will be delivered to Cisco Unity Connection.
B.    The email message will be kept in the Voice Outbox folder.
C.    The move will fail because the operation is not supported.
D.    The email message will be moved to the Deleted Items folder.
E.    The email message will be permanently deleted and will not be retrievable.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Voice messages queue for delivery in the Voice Outbox folder that is why it shows in Deleted Items folder.

QUESTION 63
Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler greeting, when enabled, overrides all other greetings?

A.    holiday
B.    closed
C.    internal
D.    busy
E.    alternate

Answer: E
Explanation:
An Alternate greeting might be enabled to override the Standard Greeting during certain times. Because it is a personal greeting used for specific purpose.

QUESTION 64
Which three Cisco Unity Connection call handler greetings can be overridden by the internal greeting? (Choose three.)

A.    holiday
B.    alternate
C.    error
D.    busy
E.    closed
F.    standard

Answer: AEF
Explanation:
This greeting overrides the Standard, Closed, and Holiday greetings but only for internal callers or users defined in Cisco Unity Connection.Because the mentioned three greetings are defined for externals users.

QUESTION 65
Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler message is played when a caller enters a string of digits that is not found in the search scope?

A.    error
B.    closed
C.    internal
D.    busy
E.    alternate

Answer: A
Explanation:
As soon as unity find the unexpected behavior it prompt the error message to the user.

QUESTION 66
What is the default treatment of a message that is left in the opening greeting default call handler in Cisco Unity Connection?

A.    It will be sent to the mailbox for the Operator user.
B.    It will be sent to the Undeliverable Messages distribution list.
C.    It will be sent to the mailbox of the system administrator.
D.    It will be sent to the All Voicemail Users distribution list.
E.    It will be sent to the General Delivery Mailbox.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Default call handler is selected when we don’t assign any call handler to user and with this default call handler no specific user assigned so it don’t go to any specific mail box and goes to It will be sent to the Undeliverable Messages distribution list

QUESTION 67
Which statement about system broadcast messages in Cisco Unity Connection is true?

A.    The user can skip a system broadcast message to listen to new messages first.
B.    The user can forward a system broadcast message only if it has been played in its entirety.
C.    System broadcast messages are synchronized between Cisco Unity Connection and Exchange when
Single Inbox is configured.
D.    System broadcast messages do not trigger MWI.
E.    System broadcast messages are played immediately after users sign in and listen to message counts
for new and saved messages.

Answer: D
Explanation:
System broadcast messages are played immediately after users log on to Cisco Unity Connection by phone even before they hear message counts for new and saved messages. After logging on, users hear how many system broadcast messages they have and Connection begins playing them.

QUESTION 68
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?

A.    configuration data store
B.    repository data store
C.    agent data store
D.    historical data store
E.    script data store

Answer: B
Explanation:
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts, grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of the following file types The Unified CCX Server’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run- time when the Repository datastore is modified.

QUESTION 69
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express script media step can invoke a VXML application to retrieve and play prompts on-demand from an off-box location?

A.    Play Prompt step
B.    Voice Browser step
C.    Menu step
D.    Recording step
E.    Simple Recognition step

Answer: B
Explanation:
CRA Voice Browser is fully integrated with the CRA Engine. You can use scripts designed in the CRA Editor to extend VoiceXML applications by providing ICD (Integrated Contact Distribution) call control and resource management. For example, you can use VoiceXML to build a speech dialog as a front end to collect information from the caller. You can then pass this information to the CRA script, and when the agent receives the call, the information collected by VoiceXML will be available. You use the Voice Browser step in the Media palette of the CRA Editor to invoke a VoiceXML application. You can use the bundled voicebrowser.aef script as an example for creating scripts that invoke VoiceXML. (You can create custom scripts to execute other steps in addition to VoiceXML.)

QUESTION 70
Why has Cisco chosen to use the SCCP protocol in its IP telephony networks?

A.    It is a peer to peer protocol.
B.    It uses intelligent endpoints.
C.    It is an industry standard, open protocol.
D.    It enables the use of a rich set of features.

Answer: D


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